Does it follow that a prophecy you read of in a previous chapter is fulfilled before a prophecy you read of in later chapters, whether you’re talking about the book of Isaiah, or any other book of the Bible?
No, I think we agree on this. But you are wrong if you think you can intepret verses 18 and following without the context of verse 17.
.As far as Isaiah 13 goes, no I don’t agree that this is exclusively referencing the past. This is due to verse 9, which I see you conveniently left out in your response by starting your quote at verse 10.
I left it out because I didn't want to post the entire chapter.
God tells us who the prophecy is against(Babylon) then tells us who He uses to bring about the prophecy(Medes) yet you say it is future because of verse 9?
It even tells us when these events were to occur:
22And the wild beasts of the islands shall cry in their desolate houses, and dragons in their pleasant palaces: and
her time is near to come , and her days shall not be prolonged.
Oh wait, you spiritualize time statements and don't take them literally right?
Verse 9 clearly references the Day of the Lord, which almost all Christians agree hasn’t happened yet.
You believe that only 1 day of the Lord is taught in scripture?
Well in order for you to be consistent you must believe we will fight with swords again:
15Every one that is found shall be thrust through; and every one that is joined unto them shall fall by the sword.
And Bows:
18Their bows also shall dash the young men to pieces; and they shall have no pity on the fruit of the womb; their eyes shall not spare children.
When you compare scripture with scripture and see how Bablyon is referenced in the book of Revelation,
Babylon in Revelation is Old Covenant Jerusalem. Who killed the Prophets? Where was the Lord slain?
Ooops. What do we do with this? Since you hold to a literal view, it must be future correct? Surely this hasn't happened.
TakeChrist4Life:
As I stated previously you began your quote of scripture at verse 10, totally ignoring the reference to the Day of the Lord in verse 9.
Here is your problem. You take passages that are meant to be figurative in nature and try to force them into a literal interpretation. I can show you many more OT passages just like this that speak to past events. How about this:
Davids flight from the Anger of Saul
Ps.18: 4 The cords of death compassed me, And the floods of ungodliness made me afraid.
5 The cords of Sheol were round about me; The snares of death came upon me.
6 In my distress I called upon Jehovah, And cried unto my God: He heard my voice out of his temple, And my cry before him came into his ears.
7 Then the earth shook and trembled; The foundations also of the mountains quaked And were shaken, because he was wroth.
8 There went up a smoke out of his nostrils, And fire out of his mouth devoured: Coals were kindled by it.
9 He bowed the heavens also, and came down; And thick darkness was under his feet.
10 And he rode upon a cherub, and did fly; Yea, he soared upon the wings of the wind.
11 He made darkness his hiding-place, his pavilion round about him, Darkness of waters, thick clouds of the skies.
Do you take this literal? I guess you must to be consistent.
Because verse 17 is clear reference to the Medo-Persian empire that ousted the Babylonian empire. Of course this brings us back to the primary issue at hand. Do these verses relate to each other in a chronological way? Yes or no, please explain.
Of course they do. Its all in context. How in the world can you know the meaning of anything if you can re-organize scripture at any point for whatever reason? Perhaps Noah built the Ark after the flood?
And I’ve seen Preterists like you neglect whole sections of scripture to inform their eschatological views, and then take pet scriptures and treat them as if they exist in a vacuum and not part of a larger whole.
Any examples?
Now we’re getting down to some nuts and bolts. You’ve finally given a typical Preterist interpretation of an eschatological term. Anyone can see how it is the Preterists along with all those who spiritualize, and allegorize, who butcher scripture. You interpret New Heavens and a New Earth as a prophesy of the Gospel period. Why? What principle? What premise? Who determined that New Heaven and New Earth mean the Gospel
Period? What scripture proves this? Note, I said scripture not some reference to an historic figure.
Another problem you have, you seem to think scripture was written to you in 21st century America with a western mind set. Wrong. It was written to people with an asian culture and Jewish mind set. Did you ever stop to wonder why people like Gill, Owen, Matthew Henry, and CH Spurgeon interpreted it that way?
Here is how a 1st century Jew used it:
Josepus Book III Chapter 6:4
4. As for the inside, Moses parted its length into three partitions. At the distance of ten cubits from the most secret end, Moses placed four pillars, the workmanship of which was the very same with that of the rest; and they stood upon the like bases with them, each a small matter distant from his fellow. Now the room within those pillars was the most holy place; but the rest of the room was the tabernacle, which was open for the priests. However, this proportion of the measures of the tabernacle proved
to be an imitation of the system of the world; for that third part thereof which was within the four pillars, to which the priests were not admitted, is,
as it were, a heaven peculiar to God.
Chapter 7:7
.......When Moses distinguished the tabernacle into three parts, (15) and allowed two of them to the priests, as a place accessible and common, he
denoted the land and the sea , these being of general access to all; but he set apart the
third division for God, because heaven is inaccessible to men. ...........The veils, too, which were composed of four things, they
declared the four elements ; for the fine
linen was proper to signify the earth , because the flax grows out of the earth; the
purple signified the sea ,
........Now the vestment of the high priest being made of linen, signified the earth; the blue denoted the sky, being like lightning in its pomegranates, and in the noise of the bells resembling thunder. And for the ephod, it showed that God had made the universe of four elements; and as for the gold interwoven, I suppose it related to the splendor by which all things are enlightened.
........And for the mitre, which was of a blue color, it seems to me to mean heaven; for how otherwise could the name of God be inscribed upon it?
I John 2: 17 And the world passeth away, and the lust thereof: but he that doeth the will of God abideth for ever.
What world was passing away 2000 years ago?
Isaiah 1
1 The vision of Isaiah the son of Amoz, which he saw
concerning Judah and Jerusalem , in the days of Uzziah, Jotham, Ahaz, and Hezekiah, kings of Judah.
2
Hear, O heavens, and give ear, O earth ; for Jehovah hath spoken: I have nourished and brought up children, and they have rebelled against me.
Is. 51: 16 And I have put my words in thy mouth, and have covered thee in the shadow of my hand, that
I may plant the heavens, and lay the foundations of the earth , and say unto Zion,
Thou art my people .
Deuteronomy 31:26 Take this
book of the LAW , and put it in the side of the ark of the covenant of the LORD your God, that IT (the law) may be there for
a WITNESS AGAINST thee .
Deuteronomy 31:27 For I know thy rebellion, and thy stiff neck: behold, while I am yet alive with you this day, ye have been rebellious against the LORD; and how much more after my death?
Deuteronomy 31:28 Gather unto me all the elders of your tribes, and your officers, that I may speak these words in their ears,
and call HEAVEN AND EARTH to RECORD AGAINST them
According to Matt 5:17-18 we are still under the Law, right?
You wrote:
Last Days? You mean the same last days found in Hebrews 1:1-2? Remember literal.
TakeChrist4Life:
Yep!!
So you believe everyone since Christ has lived in the "last days" and even the "last hour"?
Hebrews 9: 26 else must he often have suffered since the foundation of the world: but now once at the end of the ages hath he been manifested to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself.
I Peter 1:20 who was foreknown indeed before the foundation of the world, but was manifested at the end of times for your sake,
Acts 2: 16 but this is that which hath been spoken through the prophet Joel:
17 And it shall be in the last days, saith God, I will pour forth of my Spirit upon all flesh: And your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, And your young men shall see visions, And your old men shall dream dreams:
I Cor. 10: 11 Now these things happened unto them by way of example; and they were written for our admonition, upon whom the ends of the ages are come.
18Dear children, this is the last hour; and as you have heard that the antichrist is coming, even now many antichrists have come. This is how we know it is the last hour.
The last days, last hour, end of the age were all at the writing of the NT. Yet you proclaim we are in the last days. Can you prove it?
Preterism isn’t growing that much. It’s too weak in it’s interpretation methods to be anything other than a fringe element. If I were you I would start coming up with a Post or even A-Mil apologetic.
Been there. Post and A-Mill are preteristic in their interpretations. I think they would all agree with me concerning the New Heavens and New Earth, Olivet Discourse and much of Revelation. The very things that led me out of dispie world to a partial-preterist position are the very same things that led me from partial-pret to full-pret. I think the more people turn to the Post and A-Mill view, they will start to see what I saw and take the next natural step. The future intellectual debate on eschatology will be in the preterist arena not the futurist.
By the way, Rev 1:1,3 Literal???