Taufgesinnter,
Several points could stand to be made here with regard to the interpretation of the exceptive clause in Matt. 19:9:
1. I am not sure why you say that porneia is being used here "in contrast" to moicheia. I agree that it is not being used with precisely the same meaning as moicheia in this verse, but as a grounds for divorce in this passage it certainly comes close to a synonymous usage. This understanding is also commonly reflected in the standard lexical works, such as BAGD3 ("Of the sexual unfaithfulness of a married woman Mt 5:32; 19:9,#6114) and the Friberg Greek Lexicon ("(3) as a synonym for moiceia, (marital) unfaithfulness, adultery [MT 5.32], #22667).
2. You have correctly noted: "Jesus exactly did not say moicheia; He explicitly said porneia. If He had meant to say moicheia, He would have said moicheia. He did not." I could not agree more. Jesus had a reason for using the term porneia here as a grounds for divorce:
First, as noted already, it definitely would have been understood here as meaning essentially the same thing as moicheia, except that it is a term which often was used to refer to prostitution and is therefore used by Jesus to characterize marital unfaithfulness in the worst possible light. This is akin to the angry husband you might meet today who accuses his cheating wife of "acting like a whore."
Second, this use of porneia comes right from its usage in the LXX, which often refers to marital unfaithfulness as harlotry. See, for example, Jeremiah 3:6-9:
"6 The LORD said also to me in the days of Josiah the king: "Have you seen what backsliding Israel has done? She has gone up on every high mountain and under every green tree, and there played the harlot ( porneuo ). 7 "And I said, after she had done all these things, 'Return to Me.' But she did not return. And her treacherous sister Judah saw it. 8 "Then I saw that for all the causes for which backsliding Israel had committed adultery ( moichao ), I had put her away and given her a certificate of divorce; yet her treacherous sister Judah did not fear, but went and played the harlot also ( porneuo ). 9 "So it came to pass, through her casual harlotry ( porneia ), that she defiled the land and committed adultery ( moicheuo ) with stones and trees."
It is clear from this passage that porneia/porneuo is used almost interchangeably for moicheia/moichao/moicheuo and that porneia is the grounds for the charge of moicheia and thus for God's having given Israel a writing of divorcement. It is my contention that Jesus is using the terminology in precisely the way it was used in the LXX and would easily have been understood in this light by those to whom He was speaking. Jesus makes the same exception for divorce that the LORD had given to Israel in the Old Testament. Frankly, I am surprised that you would bring up the idea that those of my position would argue "from the original Semitic (whether you believe it to be Hebrew or Aramaic)" and miss altogether the importance of the LXX usage of the actual Greek word.
Gunther,
The context is dealing with the divorce of those already married, not simply betrothed, for it is a part of a discussion of the meaning of Deut. 24:1-4 (see vs.7), which is focused upon divorce and remarriage. Jesus is dealing with the meaning of the O.T. law as given by Moses, not the later ideas about a "betrothal" period such as you assert.
Pastork
