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Prophecy and Tongues

Jacob_Elliott

New Member
I've struggled a bit with 1 Corinthians 14:

1. Pursue love, and desire spiritual gifts, but especially that you may prophesy. 2. For he who speaks in a tongue does not speak to men but to God, for no one understands him; however, in the spirit he speaks mysteries. 3. But he who prophesies speaks edification and exhortation and comfort to men. 4. He who speaks in a tongue edifies himself, but he who prophesies edifies the church. 5. I wish you all spoke with tongues, but even more that you prophesied; for he who prophesies is greater than he who speaks with tongues, unless indeed he interprets, that the church may receive edification.

If 'tongues' just means 'foreign languages,' how is it that none but God may understand the speaker?

14:2 speaks not to men but to God . . . utters mysteries. This verse (cf. v. 14) describes the gift of tongues in a way that seems inconsistent with the gift of speaking in foreign languages mentioned in Acts 2:4–11 (although some believe that the miracle on Pentecost was a miracle of hearing). Accordingly, many argue that Paul is dealing with something different—a kind of ecstatic speech used for intimate prayer (Rom. 8:26). However, the word translated “tongue” is the normal Greek term for “language.” Secondly, Paul’s use of the term “mysteries” is to indicate a divine truth not yet disclosed; it does not have the meaning of the English word “mysterious” (2:7 note). Thirdly, vv. 10, 11, as well as v. 21, support the idea that even here Paul is speaking of human languages (12:8–10 note).
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
I've struggled a bit with 1 Corinthians 14:

1. Pursue love, and desire spiritual gifts, but especially that you may prophesy. 2. For he who speaks in a tongue does not speak to men but to God, for no one understands him; however, in the spirit he speaks mysteries. 3. But he who prophesies speaks edification and exhortation and comfort to men. 4. He who speaks in a tongue edifies himself, but he who prophesies edifies the church. 5. I wish you all spoke with tongues, but even more that you prophesied; for he who prophesies is greater than he who speaks with tongues, unless indeed he interprets, that the church may receive edification.

If 'tongues' just means 'foreign languages,' how is it that none but God may understand the speaker?
Some had the gift of speaking "languages," actual foreign languages. There is a time and a place for everything. Interrupting the preaching is not the place for showing off your gift. Suppose the Lord gave the gift of speaking Spanish, but they are all in Corinth, in Greece. No one there spoke Spanish. Therefore "only God could understand the speaker," (in that assembly that was being addressed).
Later, after his first imprisonment, Paul went to Spain. Is it possible that the Lord gave him the gift of tongues or languages at that time? Just a thought. It is also a sign for the unbelieving Jew (1Cor.14:21,22).
 
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