I am watching the Yankees home game tonight.
At the end of the eighth the Royals lead 6-0.
I had a thought for a proposed rule.
If the home team is behind by 5 or more runs - at the end of the eighth inning - than they will bat first for the ninth inning.
Since it is very rare that 5 runs are scored in an inning - why have the visiting team bat in the ninth if they are that far ahead?
Thoughts?
At the end of the eighth the Royals lead 6-0.
I had a thought for a proposed rule.
If the home team is behind by 5 or more runs - at the end of the eighth inning - than they will bat first for the ninth inning.
Since it is very rare that 5 runs are scored in an inning - why have the visiting team bat in the ninth if they are that far ahead?
Thoughts?