Skandelon
<b>Moderator</b>
I have argued that God's appeal for the world to be reconciled is proof that all men have the ability to be reconciled.
Calvinists argue in rebuttal, that the command doesn't imply ability, and point to the demands of the law as proof. But here is the flaw in that way of thinking.
1. God DID provide a way for us to fulfill the law. How? Through belief in the one who fulfilled the Law in our stead...Christ.
2. What is the purpose of the Law? To act as a "tutor" to help men know they need Grace which comes through faith in Christ, right?
Thus, proof that men are unable to fulfill the law is not proof men can't have faith in the one who fulfilled the law once and for all. The law was given to show men they can't fulfill the law and need help, so what is the purpose of the gospel's call to be reconciled? Is it like the law in that the call to reconciliation through faith was given to show men they can't be reconciled through faith? Please explain?
Calvinists argue in rebuttal, that the command doesn't imply ability, and point to the demands of the law as proof. But here is the flaw in that way of thinking.
1. God DID provide a way for us to fulfill the law. How? Through belief in the one who fulfilled the Law in our stead...Christ.
2. What is the purpose of the Law? To act as a "tutor" to help men know they need Grace which comes through faith in Christ, right?
Thus, proof that men are unable to fulfill the law is not proof men can't have faith in the one who fulfilled the law once and for all. The law was given to show men they can't fulfill the law and need help, so what is the purpose of the gospel's call to be reconciled? Is it like the law in that the call to reconciliation through faith was given to show men they can't be reconciled through faith? Please explain?