Question for KJVOs"like me" can we translate from.....

My dear brother, what makes you think any of us "MVers" want to correct Him? What any of us here want to do is to correct the errors of men (translators, printers, etc) which have found their way into the English text.

Don't you realize that your statement is one which possibly bears a false witness (although by innuendo) against others?

As you know God is incapable of making the smallest error. To say that the errors in the KJV "are just typos" (some indeed are not and are translation errors) doesn't negate this fact that God is incapable of any kind of error.

The KJV translation committee was not ashamed to deal with the different kinds of human errors in the AV and issued their first revision in 1613 and then in 1629, 1638, 1744, 1762, and 1769. They realized the fact of these historically evidenced human errors by publicly correcting their work.

The problem is not with the KJV which many of us use exclusively, but with the claims made by certain beloved brethren who are pious but ill-informed folks.

To say that the KJV is the "perfect" or "pure" Word(s) of God in the sense of the statement of Jesus concerning the "jots" and "tittles" (of which the KJV contains none) is confusing considering the several hundred years of corrections of the several hundreds of human errors in the KJV.

It therefor also has the potential of being an afront to God because even if these errors were all "typos" it says by implication that God doesn't make any big mistakes only little ones like "typos" (or at very least it says that little errors are OK with Him).


HankD

 

AZ....
I will take on faith that you speak Spanish better than I, as I am not a native speaker.

As an illustrative point only would you translate these two words for me (directly)?

"llyanta" in our common Spanish, vs "goma" which is the word used in SW Fla by the Cubans?

 

Perhaps I can be corrected here - the word "pastor(s) appears once in the NT (Ephesians 4v11). It is the Greek word poimen which is translated "shepherd" ot "Shepherd" the other 17 times it appears.

It looks to me like "shepherd" and "pastor" would both be acceptable translations from Greek.

Perhaps they are not acceptable translations in Spanish?

It seems to me like using the Greek would always be best.

 

AZ:
Which is correct in common usage today:

"Espiritu Santo" ("en el nombre del Padre y del Hijo y del Espiritu Santo")...

or "Fantasma Santo"

What is your justification?

 

I would if I could find out which edition of the KJV to use if I do translation work so that I can be sure to have the perfectly perfect, letter for letter, word for word, punctuation mark for punctuation mark copy of the Word of God.

This thread is well off topic - move this discussion to the thread on KJV to Spanish if you want to continue that discussion.

The topic is using the KJV (whichever version we finally are told to use) to do translation work.

Otherwise, BB policy dictacts its closure since it is past page 5.

 

Originally posted by azguitarist:

I will get to these 2 or 3 above.C4K this thread has turned towards the Spanish so lets deal with this at the moment....I have enjoyed this how bout yall?

As long as we keep it on an itellectual basis, debating as gentlemen and Christians....it is enjoyable....

 

"Today, if we were to translate a given English BV into, say, Chinese, then have someone else take that Chinese version & translate it into English, we'd then have two English versions"

__________________________________________________

AV1611Jim: This has also been applied to the Spanish language. Is this supposed to be a reason NOT to translate from English into Chinese or Thai or Spanish?

To answer: Newp!

To comment: It's baseball time again; the DODGERS are out & about.

I have a question for this person. WHY would you even bother re-translating back into English. That is just plain stupid.

Actually, not recognizing a hypothetical situation used as a rhetorical statement is what's just plain stupid. I was stating what would happen IF such an event were to occur. Obviously the KJVOs would like to avoid that subject since it dashes their "one version" myth all to pieces.

You ALREADY have the English standard.

Yerp...In several versions.

Why take it back from the Spanish or What ever? That is stupid.[/i]

"Take me out to the Baalll Game!"

More statements from Ebbetts Field


On a related note; By your SAME logic, this would also apply to the Greek. If you translate from Greek to English then from English back to Greek you end up with TWO Greek versions!

Yerp!

[/i]Oh WAIT! This has already happened! Only THAT time it was supposedly from Hebrew to Greek to English! Can you say LXX? LOLROFLOL [Laugh] [Laugh][/i]

Evidently, the AV translators did, on more than one occasion.

As do most KJVOs most of the time, you've missed the bus again. I was emphasizing the FACT that no one language will translate 100% into any other. Thus, the Greek, & especially the Hebrew will NOT translate exactly into English. If they COULD, the versions discussion would be somewhat smaller.

NONE of this is lost on GOD, who made all the languages to start with. In the past He presented His word in various versions within various languages as He jolly well chose, and He still does the same today. Just as a dog barking isn't gonna make a lion quit eating, all the KJVO howling isn't gonna make God do one thing differently than He's already chosen.

Still waiting for proof that God retired in 1611 & no longer places His word in the languages of the day.

 

Never happen....am I alone, or does circular reasoning prevail?

 

This thread's life expectancy is getting short regardless - all threads are closed on page 20.

 

Why use an English version, or any existing translation to make a new translation into any other language when the mss used to make all the existing valid translations are readily available? A translation made from those mss would be much closer to the original than a secondhand translation made from another translation.

However, such a translation would be better than none.

 

Yup, I agree, even an NIV to foreign language translation would be better than no translation.

 

Originally Posted by C4K:

"This thread is well off topic - move this discussion to the thread on KJV to Spanish if you want to continue that discussion."

Praise God, Let's do so!

 

Page 20 is closure no matter who has posted or not - sorry.

 

I guess you are not going to answer this question:

before this thread closes?

 

AZ...

As this topic will undoubtably be closed very shortly (sigh of relief is heard here)...most likely before you have a chance to answer.....

And as the thread "Can we translate the KJV into Spanish" is a poll....

In order to give you benefit of the doubt that you do indeed have answers.....

Will you open another (debate) thread where we may continue this discussion?

Quite frankly brother, I am interested in your response to my questions