Question for KJVOs"like me" can we translate from.....

I will hold to the belief that apart from man's interpretation and awareness of context, then it would be virtually impossible to translate from one language to another to another and so on. I'll stand by my example of literal interpretation.

Your comments earlier in this thread led me to believe that you believe translating is an exact science with no need for interpretation. Perhaps you would explain these words of yours?

My point is this, when translating why depend on man's interpretation when God's Words are available in the extant manuscript evidence?

 

Or you could just take it from the NIV translated directly from the Hebrew as the King James translation Committee gave their conviction concerning:

NIV 1 Chronicles 26
12 These divisions of the gatekeepers, through their chief men, had duties for ministering in the temple of the LORD, just as their relatives had.
13 Lots were cast for each gate, according to their families, young and old alike.
14 The lot for the East Gate fell to Shelemiah. Then lots were cast for his son Zechariah, a wise counselor, and the lot for the North Gate fell to him.
15 The lot for the South Gate fell to Obed-Edom, and the lot for the storehouse fell to his sons.
16 The lots for the West Gate and the Shalleketh Gate on the upper road fell to Shuppim and Hosah. Guard was alongside of guard:
17 There were six Levites a day on the east, four a day on the north, four a day on the south and two at a time at the storehouse.
18 As for the court to the west, there were four at the road and two at the court itself.
19 These were the divisions of the gatekeepers who were descendants of Korah and Merari.

RE:The KJV position concerning the question posed by the OP

“Hello, can we translate from the Bible in English and get a equal Bible in another language? If no then why not?”

The answer to the question is no because it was not the language which God was pleased to speak to His Church by the prophets and apostles.

HankD

 

If you're waiting on a response from me for every post you make, you may have to wait for some time. It is not uncommon for me to post today and then not again for two or three days. You see, I pastor a church, and the Baptist Board is merely an enjoyable pastime of mine when I have a break or a few minutes to sit down. Neither this discussion nor any other is very high on my priority list.

BTW, you may want to do a little research and discover exactly how I believe regarding the KJV. I would hate for you to assume something that you do not know.

 

Looking forward to it......

But I am with Pastor Bob, in that I also pastor a church. I've got to get ready for a meeting tonight and depending on my schedule it might be a day or two before I Get back....

"Vaya con Dios, amigo"

 

We have been deraield from the major premise of this debate. That being that God has providentially preserved His perfect Word in some unknown edition of the KJV and that there is no longer a need to refer to the best manuscripts we have available in the original languages when doing translation work.

There is a word for this false teaching which is forbidden on this board. The is no Bible evidence that God has done this. Not only that no one can tell in which edition of the KJV this was accomplished.

The principle is much more than can it be done - of course it "can be done" with ANY version of the Bible. I contend that it should NOT be done since God only gave His Word once, and that was not in 1611, 1762, 1769, or any other date past the first century.

 

Exo 34:1 And the LORD said unto Moses, Hew thee two tables of stone like unto the first: and I will write upon these tables the words that were in the first tables, which thou didst break.

 

Super verse James - praise the Lord He recast the ten commandments in His mercy instead of pouring out His wrath on a disobedient people.

What does this have to do with the KJV debate?

 

Hello, can we translate from the Bible in English and get a [sic] equal [sic] Bible in another language? If no [sic] then why not?

In reading this and your subsequent posts, may I suggest that you take a firm grasp of English first? Then maybe you'll have something to say about translating into other languages that's worth listening to. Maybe.

 

Su Wei said:

This is evidence : The Thai King James Bible

I wonder if the Thai King James Bible is as hilariously inept as the Spanish King James Bible?

 

I wonder if this is the McVey version we keep hearing about here?

Guitar?

 

You said he only gave His word once. He gave those words twice. I can think of one other example:

Jer 36:32 Then took Jeremiah another roll, and gave it to Baruch the scribe, the son of Neriah; who wrote therein from the mouth of Jeremiah all the words of the book which Jehoiakim king of Judah had burned in the fire: and there were added besides unto them many like words.

So God is not barred from restoring His word at any time, is He?

 

Can ANYBODY post Scriptural definitions of the "H" word we are tossing about?
Even veiled references to "the word we cannot say but I am saying to this guy" is just NOT cool folks.
Here ya go;
Ac 24:14
But this I confess unto thee, that after the way which they call heresy, so worship I the God of my fathers, believing all things which are written in the law and in the prophets:
2Pe 2:1
But there were false prophets also among the people, even as there shall be false teachers among you, who privily shall bring in damnable heresies, even denying the Lord that bought them, and bring upon themselves swift destruction.
Tit 3:10
A man that is an heretick after the first and second admonition reject;

a) heresy as applied to the Christian way.
b) heresy as applied to denying the Lord Jesus
c) heresy as applied to people who preach it should be banned/shunned

I contend the NONE of the Biblical parameters of this word are being brought to this or any other discussion in this forum.
And IF the MOD.'s or ADMIN believe otherwise, they are NOT being Biblical. They should just ban such people. Myself included.

In HIS service;
Jim

 

No, but I can spell in English

(from your previous post)