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No, not a fluke, a lie. The NKJV says "the Son of God" in every edition and every printing.Originally posted by KJVONLY:
Well the copy of the NKJV I saw said son of the gods,a fluke?
KJV: 26 The servant therefore fell down, and worshipped him, saying, Lord, have patience with me, and I will pay thee all.What about Matt 18:26,
KJV: 20 ¶ Then came to him the mother of Zebedee’s children with her sons, worshipping him, and desiring a certain thing of him.Matt 20:20,
KJV: 35 And the servant abideth not in the house for ever: but the Son abideth ever.John 8:35,
KJV: 13 The God of Abraham, and of Isaac, and of Jacob, the God of our fathers, hath glorified his Son Jesus; whom ye delivered up, and denied him in the presence of Pilate, when he was determined to let him go.Acts 3:13,
KJV: 15 And it came to pass, that, as Jesus sat at meat in his house, many publicans and sinners sat also together with Jesus and his disciples: for there were many, and they followed him.Mark 2:15(omited),
KJV: 29 Forasmuch then as we are the offspring of God, we ought not to think that the Godhead is like unto gold, or silver, or stone, graven by art and man’s device.
Acts 17:29,
KJV: 18 For the preaching of the cross is to them that perish foolishness; but unto us which are saved it is the power of God.1Cor 1:18,
KJV: 15 For we are unto God a sweet savour of Christ, in them that are saved, and in them that perish:2Cor 2:15,
KJV: 14 Because strait is the gate, and narrow is the way, which leadeth unto life, and few there be that find it.Matt 7:14(difficult?!)
KJV: 6 ¶ Set thou a wicked man over him: and let Satan stand at his right hand.Ps 109:6,
Yes! Smoking crack! Every verse you said is missing is there. Every verse you said followed a different text followed the exact same text as the KJV. The only differences were the of the translation present, passive, participle, which I agree is confusing, the translation of the Greek word "proskuneo" (which means "to fall upon the knees") as "kneel" instead of "worship," and the translation of the Hebrew word "sawtawn" as "adversary" instead of "Satan" which the KJV also does 7 times! Once again you have proved your ignorance! I can't believe you would lie about this stuff when it is so simple to check and show that you have not told the truth!I find it hard to belive that the NKJV derives from the TR!!!!! SMOKING!!!!!!
KJVONLY, I would encourage you to continue reading the KJV, since it's a very good translation. I'm glad that you don't find it hard to read are able to understand it in your daily studies. The more people who read the KJV (as opposed to nothing) the better. Of course, the more people who read any trustworthy translation (NKJV, NASB, etc) as opposed to nothing the better.Originally posted by KJVONLY:
Your right GIG, there is a lot of arguing on this subject! It is my conviction for the KJV that most people dislike; on here and in the real world. I make no apoligies for those convictions;therefore, I will never change my stand for the KJV. I agree, this thread has gone sour due to conviction by BOTH sides. But if a person want's to read one of those "other versions" then by all means do it!! It will not change my veiw on the KJV...
I disagree. The NKJV, yes, but the NASB has some words and verses missing that make it incomplete.Originally posted by DocCas:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Scott J:
By this definition, the NASB and NKJV are every bit as much the perfect word of God as the KJV is.
Once again, KJVONLY, you can't seem to follow the discussion. The claim was made that the NKJV was based on different texts than the KJV. I just showed that it is not. The differences are due to translational choices not textual variants. And, I also showed where the KJV translates the same Greek word as "servant" but you don't claim that is an error, so why is it an error in the NKJV? As to "difficult" - the Greek word is "thlibo" which is translated trouble 4 times, afflict 3 times, narrow only once, and throng once, suffer tribulation once. It is the word for "press" or "compress" and is often used metaphorically to mean "difficult" or "troubled." It is a translational choice not a textual variant. And the KJV translators made similar choices 9 out of the 10 times it is used in the KJV!Originally posted by KJVONLY:
Difficult is the way? salvtion is not difficult!!!!! Who are being saved? is it a lengthy process?? . Is he a servant or The Son of God?? It would appear that someone else is lying...![]()
That wasn't my point, as I am sure you are aware.Originally posted by Scott J:
Even if we consent that the MT/TR is correct in every instance, I would still submit that everything God willed for us to know through His written Word is clearly present in the NASB.
The Greek word in the TR is "kapeleuo." It means "to make money by selling something." This is another example of translation choice and not a textual variant. Once again you have been proven to be wrong. The NKJV follows the TR.Originally posted by KJVONLY:
Again,2 Cor 2:17 changes the word "corrupt" to "peddle." Why get rid of the word "corrupt"?
The Greek word for "study" is "spoudazo" and the KJV translates it as endeavour 3, do diligence 2, be diligent 2, give diligence 1, be forward 1, labour 1, study 1. Once again you have been proven wrong, as here again the NKJV follows the TR.2 Tim 2:15 "study" is gone, as with the NIV, as well as the RSV&ASV.
The Greek word is "hairetikos" and means "schismatic, factious, a follower of a false doctrine." And yet once again you have been proven wrong. The NKJV follows the TR here.Titus 3:10 is just like the NIV.
Because you don't understand what the KJV is saying. It does not mean to abstain for everything that somebody might think looks like evil, but to abstain from evil every time it appears, or takes form. And, once again you have proved you don't know what you are talking about. The NKJV follows the TR here.1st Thess 5:22 looks and reads just like the RSV,ASV. Why???
That wasn't my point, as I am sure you are aware.</font>[/QUOTE]Yes. Just didn't want it to be misconstrued by those who would willingly distort what you said and find comfort in that distortion.Originally posted by DocCas:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Scott J:
Even if we consent that the MT/TR is correct in every instance, I would still submit that everything God willed for us to know through His written Word is clearly present in the NASB.
It sure looks to me like salvation was hard, especially when you have wordly goods to love. In fact, Jesus said it was more than just hard; without God's help, it was IMPOSSIBLE:And Jesus looked round about, and saith unto his disciples, How hardly shall they that have riches enter into the kingdom of God! And the disciples were astonished at his words. But Jesus answereth again, and saith unto them, Children, how hard is it for them that trust in riches to enter into the kingdom of God! It is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle, than for a rich man to enter into the kingdom of God. (Mark 10:23-25)
And they were astonished out of measure, saying among themselves, Who then can be saved?And Jesus looking upon them saith, With men it is impossible, but not with God: for with God all things are possible. (vv. 26-27)
And why should the Bible be a matter of "deciphering" on any level, instead of simply reading?Originally posted by GIG:
Thee and thou are not to hard to decipher..
That is definitely not "a hard time doing."I think I have probably accomplished here what most people have a hard time doing, i've probably offended both crowds a little