No, I'm talking about this quote of yours before you cleaned it up with the quote above:
He died to save His people from their sins.
OK. Your objection makes more sense but it is without merrit. (It's a "throw out objection," a smoke screen to divert from the argument).
Viewing Christ as the atoning sacrifice for the sins (still focusing on sin, not on the elect or anyone else) of the world still is not presenting Christ as dying for no one because it is one aspect of an argument.
I could, for example, hold Calvin’s view that God invited indiscriminately all to share in the life and cut off every excuse form unbelievers. He uses the term ‘world’ as the “whole world when he calls all without exception to the faith of Christ.” Christ is the propitiation of the sins of the world (descriptive of Christ) who died to save the elect (what he has done). The first portion of the argument does not say that Christ died for people, but for the sins of the world. It would, however, be dishonest for me to say that Calvin believed Christ died for no one. Likewise, as both you and Aaron have read and responded to my posts, it is dishonest or mistaken of you to present my statement in such a fashion.
I have to admit that I was not the best Greek student (but I survived). I did take out of the course the importance of identifying the subject of a particular passage. I was not speaking of what Christ did in terms of atonement, or even the purpose of God in sending His Son, but of Christ as the Lamb of God.
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