How do you know God added to it, instead of the text simply being slightly different back then than it is now? And again, even if God did add it, how do you explain the KJV-only definition of "preservation", since God's actions are then *against* how KJV-onlyists define preservation? Are you not thus demonstrating the KJV-only position is in oppostion to how God acts?
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Just like I said in another thread the Pharasees were quizing Jesus about divorce,Jesus directs them to Deut 24:1-4 and tells them what Moses wrote down,THEN he ADDS TO WHAT MOSES SAID IN DEUTERONOMY;see MAtt 19:7-9. Now like I said before,Jesus is God & He can add to His Word if He so desires,Jeremiah 36:32 is another fine example of Him doing so.My question is, what will be your response to HIM adding to His Word??? </font>[/QUOTE]Not the same thing JYD. In Matthew 19:7-9 Jesus is expounding on what Moses wrote. Read the text. It does not say that He was reading from a scroll of Deuteronomy. In the Luke passage, it clearly says Jesus was reading Isaiah.Originally posted by JYD:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr /> As usual, as a KJV onlyist to explain another passage that shows the error of KJV onlyism and they all become mute and unable to respond.
Surely you can see that your reply does not answer the question. Either Jesus was reading a scroll with words added to it or the KJV is missing words in Isaiah 61:1 or the KJV has an inaccurate account in Luke. Do you know of another explaination that accounts for all of the text?
Your answer simply cannot do it since the KJV clearly say Jesus was reading from Isaiah.
AV Defender
New Member
And??? you obviously forget WHO we are talking about. He is the Word of God,He needs no scroll to quote scripture.It does not say that He was reading from a scroll of Deuteronomy.
Originally posted by JYD:
Of course not... He only needs a KJV, and I have never seen on of them in a scroll. Right?And??? you obviously forget WHO we are talking about. He is the Word of God,He needs no scroll to quote scripture.
And??? you obviously forget WHO we are talking about. He is the Word of God,He needs no scroll to quote scripture. </font>[/QUOTE]That may well be true but the text says he was reading from Isaiah according to my memory. If he was reading from Isaiah, then he was not quoting Deuteronomy.Originally posted by JYD:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr /> It does not say that He was reading from a scroll of Deuteronomy.
And??? you obviously forget WHO we are talking about. He is the Word of God,He needs no scroll to quote scripture. </font>[/QUOTE]I don't disagree with you on that. None the less, in Luke 4 it says Jesus was reading. In the passage you cite to help explain, it does not say He was reading.Originally posted by JYD:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr /> It does not say that He was reading from a scroll of Deuteronomy.
Like I said before, I don't have a problem with the fact that the words in Luke 4:18 are not identical to the words at Isaiah 61:1. But I have not yet seen a KJVO explaination of how this can be possible. My contention is that saying the same thing does not require saying it with the same words. That is exactly how I view this issue- the pursuit of the words is an academic pursuit involving evidence and evaluation but the pursuit/application of the Word (what was said) is a spiritual one.
Word for word perfection is not required for perfection of the message.
I can completely buy in to the explaination promoted by kman. But his post just further supports my contention. Jesus took the whole of Isaiah and the scriptures in context. The Bible is one Word, not limited to the sum of its human words.
Ed Edwards
<img src=/Ed.gif>
Amen, Brother Scott J. -- Preach it!Originally posted by Scott J:
The Bible is one Word, not limited to the sum of its human words.