Yes, it is the "UNPARDONABLE SIN" which you also don't acknowledge.
You see, this is one reason I quit talking to you. You are too often dishonest, and here is an example. I do acknowledge the unpardonable sin, and I have explained very clearly what I believe it is. It is dishonest and unethical for you to say that I don’t acknowledge it.
It is the one sin Christ said that wouldn't be pardoned. So all sin is pardoned but the one Jesus told us wasn't. The fact that Jesus excluded that sin is, to me, good enough.
Then Jesus didn’t die for all sin, which kind of blows your whole idea, doesn’t it?
: What do you mean by "for"?
What does "is" mean, Mr President? What kind of a "pit" are you trying to lay for me with your non-understanding of common words? For means "paid in full," Lar. It means the "handwriting of ordinances that was against us was nailed to His cross," Lar.
You see, a smart aleck response like this shows just how unreasonable you are and how unqualified you are to have this discussion. Let’s talk English first.
Consider the following:
I went to the store for a box of cereal.
I went to the store for my wife.
I went to the store for about an hour.
Now they clearly have different meanings. So it’s not like “is” in the least.
Now consider Greek: peri, huper, gar, anti: They have all different aspects. Which one are you referring to?
You see, until you ask a good question, I can’t really give you an answer. Of course, as dogmatic as you are on this, how do you not know this? How can you be so dogmatic and yet fail to be familiar with even these basic things, like the fact that “for” has a number of different meanings. I am not laying a trap for you. I am trying to avoid one by finding out what you are asking.
But in your smart aleck response, you did walk right into a trap, the trap of not recognizing that “for” has different meanings depending on the context.
Of course, that doesn't prove my case except there's 1John 2:2 -- "And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world." Now twist that like a pretzel (as I know you will what with the fact that already the word "world" is in there), but I find more evidence for my belief than for yours.
Where have I ever twisted a verse, much less with the word “world” in it? My contention about 1 John 2:2 is that whatever Christ did for us, he did for the whole world. Now, the question is what did he do for us?
I think there are better verses for a universal atonement. I do affirm that Christ died for all. But I deny that he died for all in the same sense.
We went at this as if it weren't a sin -- we been at this as if Jesus excepted it from pardonable sins. However we couch it, believers don't go to hell and unbelievers do. My side just doesn't have such an arcane, scripturally muddled way of explaining that truth.
So if unbelief is a sin, and Jesus paid for all sin, then why do people go to hell? You don’t have an arcane, scripturally muddled way of explaining it. The fact is that you don’t have an explanation at all … at least one that you have put forth.
In the end, I think the atonement is much simpler than people make it. The death of Jesus is sufficient for all and efficient for the elect--those who believe. It was not intended to save anyone but those who it saves. It did not pay for the sins of any except those who are saved. Whoever believes will be forgiven, and those who don't will not.