Like I said, the authors of the NT could have used more formal forms of Greek at the time, such as the "high" form of Greek we sometimes refer to as "Ancient Greek" today, but the authors of the NT chose Koine Greek, which was the "common man's Greek". It was the common written tongue of the average person, not the high language of aristocracy. Since the NT authors wrote in the common tongue of the day, a translation of that should likewise be into the common tongue of whatever language is being translated to. There's no objective logic to translating a writing, whether it's scripture, or any other literary work, from its original language form to a different form of its translated language.
Amen to all of the above.
The KJV revisers tried to fancy-up the text. But by that they were not being as faithful to the original as they could have been. Of course they didn't know about Koine Greek back in the 17th century.
The NLTse and GW translations are more faithful in this respect.