I believe it obvious that God’s plan of redemption is not limited to Israel, even before the New Covenant. You have to keep in mind that Israel did not exist throughout much of OT history (Abraham was not, for example, an Israelite per se).
It is agreed that Redemption was not limited to Israel, lol, seeing that God promised to bless all families of the earth through Abraham, who was, as you point out...a Gentile. Jimmy DeYoung talks about an encounter on the sea of Galilee with a Jewish man, who told him,, "You realize the first Christians were Jews, Right?" Jimmy replied, "Of course! But, you do realize the first Jew was a Gentile, right?" lol
But God did choose out of fallen mankind a people.
I don't see it that way.
God created Israel, rather than chose them. And He did this through the process of sanctifying one particular man for His purposes (Abraham), who was unrelated to the Nation itself.
So we do not see a people in existence that God chose from all nations available, regardless of merit. We might illustrate this with saying the man that builds a house didn't choose to live in that house, because prior to his building if it the house did not exist. So I try to make that distinction because the concept of "choosing" Israel or that Israel is a Chosen Nation as opposed to Israel being a Created people also implacts, I think, our understanding of God's choosing and election of those who are brought into relationship with Him through the New Covenant.
Secondly, we see in the relationship of God with Israel some very interesting issues of discussion. One of which I think to be relevant to the discussion at hand is that
because of sin it was created, rather than the reason He established the New Covenant, which was created, also, because of sin, but, rather than being a resulting Covenant, it was a Remedial Covenant. In other words, God created that Covenant because they sinned. He created the New Covenant...despite their sin.
And lastly on that note I would also point out I take the view that all Covenants with the exception of the Covenant of Law...are the same Covenant of Promise. We see the Abrahamic fulfilled, for example, in the New Covenant.
He did revel Himself and engage within a plan of redemption with a specific people.
He did this from the very beginning.
But, the one thing I think we need to consider is that the Covenant of Law did not progress the Plan of Redemption on a salvific basis. In other words, those in relationship with God were no closer to the Atonement accomplished by Christ than Abraham. Or Job. Or Noah, for that matter. The point being, Israel was still reliant on remission of sins that was granted by following the basis of provision given them. Men sinned, that demanded death. Men offered up the death of a substitute. But the reality of the Scapegoat does not hit home until men are in fact forgiven on that eternal basis. Until Christ dies, rather than the vicarious substitute of the previous Ages, sin is not forgotten, and it is not taken away.
So we cannot set Israel forth as a People of God forgiven for their sin, because it is because of the sins of men that this Covenant was created:
Galatians 3:19
King James Version (KJV)
19 Wherefore then serveth the law? It was added because of transgressions, till the seed should come to whom the promise was made; and it was ordained by angels in the hand of a mediator.
That does not nullify the demand on Israel to obey, and through obedience be the Witness Nation they were created to be. Nor do we overlook the grace of God in establishing that relational Covenant despite their sin.
What of in the OT who were not included? Were there people outside of God’s chosen people (whether Israel or Noah’s family, or Abraham)? I do not believe so.
Not really sure what you are saying here, whether you don't believe there were those who were chosen or that you believe there were.
I think you are saying that these who were not of Israel specifically were not excluded from His Plan of Redemption. But you would need to clarify. The next statement seems to confirm this, as it is a contrast.
We also have to remember that not all included under the nation of Israel were direct descendants of Abraham.
Two ways to approach this, Spiritual Israel, and, the fact that Gentiles could become proselytes. Again, not sure which is in view.
What Paul does teach (and what Jesus taught) was that salvation came first to the Jew and then the Gentile.
I don't really make a concrete generalization of Christ's statement, seeing that salvation was being accomplished long before Israel was created.
I think the important thing to remember is that it is the Word of God which makes Israel unique. Then, when we see Paul's reference to the Gospel and the statement "To the Jew first and then to the Greek," rather than their being a concept of Jews getting first dibs its a matter of sequential order. We can say that the Jew received the Gospel first in two ways at least: he received it first in Prophecy, then secondly we see that the Lord's ministry was specific to Israel (Matthew 10:5-7; Matthew 15:23-24). I think this is the case because the promises of God, though given to all families of the earth even in Genesis 3:15, have a direct correlation to Israel as an example of Mankind and his relationship to God. For example, we see many expectant believers in Christ/Messiah, but, the Prophecy is specific to Israel in regards to the promised Kingdom in that Israel is the focus, both in land as well as the people who would be restored.
When Christ states "Salvation is of the Jews," we know He doesn't mean that salvation is the result of what ISrael does, but that salvation threads its way through her history as a part of God's Plan. Salvation did arise out of Israel, in the Person of Jesus Christ, a Jew.
I don't think that we can get around that point, although we can discuss the fact that that the Old Covenant came along 400 years after Abraham, and Abraham predated Israel as a nation (although that would be another topic).
Now, let's take that point and apply it to the discussion at hand: we see men chosen prior to even Abraham. These are important details of God's Plan and I think a general principle would apply.
Take Noah, for example. Do we not see the Redemptive Plan continued through him? It would be a little difficult to bring about salvation if mankind was completely destroyed.
How about Shem? Could we have an Abraham apart from that direct descent?
Then we see the Promises made to Abraham. The Promises become more distinct through the Prophets. The Promises are still being taught by Christ in His day (i.e., Acts 1:4-5). And when the New Covenant is established, we see the Promises fulfilled. And the kingdom that arises out of that is not the Kingdom that Israel awaited. Today, many Jews still await the fulfillment of those Promises, and the fact is, God is not going to change His Plan to suit their expectation.
Okay, sorry, John, I really had no intention of getting so long-winded on this, lol. I will just say that when it comes to being chosen, we must first look at creation before imposing the choosing into it. Israel is a good example, in that, despite the fact that the opportunity was present for every member of Israel, we see that only those of faith are credited as having a relationship with God. So too, we see a parallel in the revelation of the Gospel in regards to all men, or, all families of the earth. Both hold opportunity for those in view, but that does not demand a salvific conclusion because of the opportunity.
God bless.