Dr. Walter
New Member
Where we are missing each other on this subject is that you understand "hearing" and "perceiving" and "seeing" as physical capabilities sufficient for dealing with spiritual things and anyone has the ability to respond to God's Word.
If natural born humans possessed "hearing...seeing...perceiving" suffienct to respond to spiritual things then why does God say the following words to those who abundantly heard, saw and claimed to perceive a mass of Biblical revelation from God:
Yet the LORD hath not given you an heart to perceive, and eyes to see, and ears to hear, unto this day. - Deut. 29:4
Why does the Lord condition these abilities upon reception of a "heart" that he must give them if they can possess such abilities without being given another heart by God?
If as you say, all humans already possess the ability to perceive, eyes to see and ears to hear spiritual things then why does God necessarily deny they can respond as described unless he gives them another heart? They obviously had physical ears and eyes and had a mind to perceive some things?
Why would he say the following about the same people if they possessed such a heart already?
O that there were such an heart in them, that they would fear me, and keep all my commandments always, that it might be well with them, and with their children for ever! - Deut. 5:29
God says this ability to perceive, see, hear, fear me and keep my commandments is inseparable from God giving a new heart. God says that until he gives this heart man is incapable of doing these things as these things only come with God giving such a heart.
In Ezekiel 36:26-27 God clearly states that giving such a new heart effectually produces obedience to His will. He uses the words "cause you" in verse 27.
Now, it seems to me that you are forced to define "draw" in John 6:44-45 to be inclusive of God giving such a new heart or else there can be no spiritual ability to perceive, see or hear the gospel or else you must repudiate the Lord's words in Deut. 5:29 and 29:4.
I am not going any further than these Old Testament texts because they fully represent the foundational problem in our discussion and they are confirmed by New Testament texts (Rom. 8:7; 1 Cor. 2:14; Heb. 10:15-18; 2 Cor. 3:3-6; 4:4-6).
If natural born humans possessed "hearing...seeing...perceiving" suffienct to respond to spiritual things then why does God say the following words to those who abundantly heard, saw and claimed to perceive a mass of Biblical revelation from God:
Yet the LORD hath not given you an heart to perceive, and eyes to see, and ears to hear, unto this day. - Deut. 29:4
Why does the Lord condition these abilities upon reception of a "heart" that he must give them if they can possess such abilities without being given another heart by God?
If as you say, all humans already possess the ability to perceive, eyes to see and ears to hear spiritual things then why does God necessarily deny they can respond as described unless he gives them another heart? They obviously had physical ears and eyes and had a mind to perceive some things?
Why would he say the following about the same people if they possessed such a heart already?
O that there were such an heart in them, that they would fear me, and keep all my commandments always, that it might be well with them, and with their children for ever! - Deut. 5:29
God says this ability to perceive, see, hear, fear me and keep my commandments is inseparable from God giving a new heart. God says that until he gives this heart man is incapable of doing these things as these things only come with God giving such a heart.
In Ezekiel 36:26-27 God clearly states that giving such a new heart effectually produces obedience to His will. He uses the words "cause you" in verse 27.
Now, it seems to me that you are forced to define "draw" in John 6:44-45 to be inclusive of God giving such a new heart or else there can be no spiritual ability to perceive, see or hear the gospel or else you must repudiate the Lord's words in Deut. 5:29 and 29:4.
I am not going any further than these Old Testament texts because they fully represent the foundational problem in our discussion and they are confirmed by New Testament texts (Rom. 8:7; 1 Cor. 2:14; Heb. 10:15-18; 2 Cor. 3:3-6; 4:4-6).