Rev 1:6 and the Majority Text

I would never accuse you of writing the Bible...

... so what you're saying is that God yielded to a witch and a king that He had turned against allowing them to resurrect Samuel? I have read it... in context, have you? Or are you so determined to undermine a version of God's Word that you are willing to ignore context?

The KJV says the woman had a familiar spirit. What does that mean to you? If everything that was reported there is literally what was there, and not what the witch and Samuel perceived, then who were the gods referenced in vs 13?

BTW, why so selective in your responses? Please tell us why the KJV translators introduced confusion by using 'ghost' and 'spirit' interchangeably for pneuma while 'spirit' is also used to translate phantasma. Many MV's eliminate this confusion by translating pneuma as 'spirit' and phantasma as 'ghost.'

According to Webster's Dictionary:

\Ghost\, n. OE. gast, gost, soul, spirit, AS. g[=a]st breath, spirit, soul; akin to OS. g?st spirit, soul, D. geest, G. geist, and prob. to E. gaze, ghastly. 1. The spirit; the soul of man. [Obs.]

2. The disembodied soul; the soul or spirit of a deceased person; a spirit appearing after death; an apparition; a specter.

In context, the KJV means the same thing as MV's at Mat 14:26. The only difference is in your mind.

 

I have always thought it was the real Samual and I have only read it in modern versions.

 

I agree that 1Sam.28 says that Samuel really appeared to Saul, but I do not think that this in any way means that God "yeilded to a witch" so as to validate her in some way. In fact, the text seems to clearly portray the woman as shocked that the real Samuel actually showed up. I think that this was simply God's way of restating to Saul that his judgment was deserved.