Ok, I like to discuss what are the different meanings for Logos vs Rhema.
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Ok, I like to discuss what are the different meanings for Logos vs Rhema.
Sorry, but I don't think the linguistic data supports this theory of the difference between the two words. And for sure Bill Gothard is no Greek scholar! The word rhema is many times used when it is not a spoken word direct from God. Look at Matt. 5:11 for just one example.Well when I was a young believer and I read Mathew 4:4 where Jesus said "It is written: 'Man does not live on bread alone, but on every word that comes from the mouth of God". I found out "word" was actually Rhema not Logos which put a whole new meaning to the text for me. Several times John's gospel uses rhema as in "If you remain in me and my "words" remain in you, ask whatever you wish, and it will be given you." Rhema is a spoken word"direct" from God personally to you and not just text
in whole. Anyways Bill Gothard put it "A rhema is a verse or portion of Scripture that the Holy Spirit brings to a person’s attention with application to a current situation or need for direction."
Jesus said it again in John 6:63 "The Spirit gives life; the flesh counts for nothing. The words I have spoken to you are spirit and they are life". Seems to make scripture more meaningfull in their application. Reading the scriptures in modern translations or King James for that matter doesn't really show the difference. Has it helped you in some way to know "or apply" the different meanings?
And for sure Bill Gothard is no Greek scholar! .
Where the "word of God" appears in the KJV it is logos in the majority, but it is also from rhema several times; therefore they seem to be synonomous in this usage.Ok, I like to discuss what are the different meanings for Logos vs Rhema.
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“The Logos" as it is used in scripture, is only found in the prologue to John’s gospel (John 1:1-18). John brings together the philosophies among the people of the day and names “the logos” as Jesus. Logos was used in many ways among philosophers, but not as John used the word. John shows that Christ is far more than the combination of “the logos” philosophies in the world. ...
In Jn 1:1 Jesus is the summation and more of all philosophical ideas of logos at the time John's gospel. Jesus was in eternity past and continuing on in the present. He extends from eternity past to the present. John brings together every possible philosophical idea of logos and declares it to be Jesus. Then goes on to declare Jesus as much more.Well I see Rhema as a direct word from God Himself. Logos as the written word. Jesus said the words I speak to you are spirit and are life. Again Rhema is used here....not written "Logos". Pratical level...as we study Gods word "Logos" and a passage seems to jump out at us and even a second time through confirmation "no coincidences" is a rhema from God.
Well I see Rhema as a direct word from God Himself. Logos as the written word. Jesus said the words I speak to you are spirit and are life. Again Rhema is used here....not written "Logos". Pratical level...as we study Gods word "Logos" and a passage seems to jump out at us and even a second time through confirmation "no coincidences" is a rhema from God.
Both words can mean either thing. In Matt. 7:24-28, logos is very clearly the spoken sayings of Jesus. In Eph. 5:26, rhema appears to be the written word of God.Logos = written word
Rhema = utterance, spoken command, etc.
"So then faith comes by hearing, and hearing by the word of God." where "word" = rhema.
So, it's more like, "So then faith comes by hearing, and hearing comes when God says so."
Both words can mean either thing. In Matt. 7:24-28, logos is very clearly the spoken sayings of Jesus. In Eph. 5:26, rhema appears to be the written word of God.
Each of these words has a wide range of meaning and must be translated according to context, not by concordance. ("Concordance" in translating is when you translate every occurance of a word by the same word in the target language.) :type:
Sorry, but in Greek syntax, "command," whether "make it so" or "you must do", is portrayed by verbs, and not nouns like logos and rhema. There is nothing inherent in a Greek noun that shows verbal characteristics like a command. (Languages are different here. Japanese syntax also uses verbs for commands, but Chinese needs an auxiliary word to the verb.)Forgive me if I don't recall every example, so I may not be 100% accurate on this. But as far as I can remember, when I say rhema is connected to an utterance/command, I mean as in "make it so" not as in "you people must do the following," which would be closer to a "saying" or "teaching" or law (Matt 7:24). IMO, that's why logos is used in Matt 7:24.
This is interesting speculation, but I don't know how you can prove it. The Greek rhema in Eph. 5:26 is a dative of means (called an "instrumental" in some grammars). It simply means that the "word" is the means by which the washing was done, it doesn't describe the action of the verb."Washing of water by the word", to me, is the word of Christ to "make it so", not the word that she reads. After all, in that verse, Jesus is doing all the action, not the woman who is being cleansed.