Romans 7

[Heavenly Pilgrim]

Ro 7:1 ¶ Know ye not, brethren, (for I speak to them that know the law,) how that the law hath dominion over a man as long as he liveth?
2 For the woman which hath an husband is bound by the law to her husband so long as he liveth; but if the husband be dead, she is loosed from the law of her husband.
3 So then if, while her husband liveth, she be married to another man, she shall be called an adulteress: but if her husband be dead, she is free from that law; so that she is no adulteress, though she be married to another man.

Romans 7 is an interesting passage to say the least. It is being addressed in another thread, but I believe it would be better to start at the beginning and to discuss it as it builds in context.

The first issue I find is that the law hath dominion over a man as long as he liveth. If one is found to be a violator of the law, the case in question being that of a women that is married to one husband, and while that husband is still living she be married to another man, the Scriptures say she is an adulteress. That is an interesting passage to say the least in light of our permissive society even within the Church. Note carefully there is no exception clause alluded to in any shape or fashion that I can tell. The issue surrounds one thing and one thing only, i.e., if in fact the first husband be dead or alive.

Thoughts?

 

[Jedi Knight]

Depends if you can carry a two way conversation and not leave people hanging on your words only.:wavey: Still waiting....

 

[Heavenly Pilgrim]

Sorry JK, but you are not making any sense to me. Do you have a comment concerning these verses or not?

At the very least we would not desire to miss some truth God would have for us that sets the stage for the verses to come.

 

[Jedi Knight]

If someone asks you a question like on other threads you have been on....don't ignore them and it will be more fun to interact.:type:

 

[Heavenly Pilgrim]

One individual as I recall made a remark that the 6th-8th chapters were addressing believers, evidently asuming that everything in these chapters must of necesity be speaking concerning believers. Is that actually the case? As I read the text there is no inference of speaking directly to those saved or those never saved. The author is making a generalized statement which applies universally to all concerning the law. A married individual, lost or saved, bond or free, is bound by the law not to remarry until the death of the spouse, and to remarry while a former spouse is living is tantamount to adultery. Is that what and how it is stated or not?

 

[billwald]

>Ro 7:1 ¶ Know ye not, brethren, (for I speak to them that know the law,) how that the law hath dominion over a man as long as he liveth?

Addressed to Jews? Gentiles in Roman would not be expected to know details of the Mosaic Covenant.

Which verses in Exo thru Deut refer to gentiles in North America?

 

[Heavenly Pilgrim]

Billwald: >Ro 7:1 ¶ Know ye not, brethren, (for I speak to them that know the law,) how that the law hath dominion over a man as long as he liveth?

Addressed to Jews? Gentiles in Roman would not be expected to know details of the Mosaic Covenant.

Which verses in Exo thru Deut refer to gentiles in North America?

HP: Sorry Bill but your post is not very clear to me. I for one do not see the connection between the Mosaic covenant to the Jews and the issue of one man one women for life mentioned in Romans 7:1 Can you possibly restate the point you are trying to make? Thanks.

 

[Heavenly Pilgrim]

Ro 7:1 ¶ Know ye not, brethren, (for I speak to them that know the law,) how that the law hath dominion over a man as long as he liveth?
2 For the woman which hath an husband is bound by the law to her husband so long as he liveth; but if the husband be dead, she is loosed from the law of her husband.

An interesting question is, what ‘law’ is the author speaking of? What ‘law’ has ‘dominion over a man so long as he liveth?' When and where was this 'law' given?