eloidalmanutha,
"Peter was not praying, he was preaching the gospel message when the Holy Spirit showed up and gave them tongues"
I wasnt talking about Peter. I was talking about Cornelius. He initiated nothing. He was simply listening to the gospel, and he miraculously began to speak in tongues.
You indicated that you were oblivious to someone being gifted with tongues spontaneously in the scriptures, so I showed you where it happened.
"...the "sign" for unbelievers today is the Word of God."
Now wait a minute.
In your previous post you said this...
btw - tongues are a sign for unbelievers"
Now you are saying...
"...the "sign" for unbelievers today is the Word of God."
Which is your true belief?
"Certainly, if God would choose to give a language to someone speaking to one of another nationality that the speaker did not know the language - cool."
He does that sometimes. He also sometimes gives people a heavenly prayer language. This is sometimes referred to as the "tongues of angels"
"But these are very isolated cases today. God's Word is now translated into most languages, so there is little need for tongues to spread the gospel [that is why tongues or languages was given - per Acts 1:8]"
Tongues are not usually for "spreading the gospel"
They are primarily for...
A personal prayer language for those God gives that gift to.(1 Cor 13:2)
A revelation from God, with the interpretation, for a person or a gathered assembly..(1 Cor 13:6, and 13:13)
Both are legitimate.(1 Cor 13:6, and 13:13)
"1 Cor 14:2 is a corrective statement, Paul was scolding them."
That was
part of the message. A great part of the message is to define the proper use of tongues in the body.
People who say the entire message is a rebuke are reading it with that bias so as to condemn Gods gift of the Spirit (tongues) in this day and age.
How can this be a rebuke?...
"For he who speaks in a tongue does not speak to men but to God, for no one understands him. However, in the Spirit he speaks mysteries"
If God is supposedly
rebuking them for speaking in mysteries, why would He
endorse speaking in mysteries, as he is doing here?
"What is the conclusion then? I will pray with the spirit, and I will also pray with the understanding. I will sing with the spirit, and I will also sing with the understanding."
If God is supposedly
rebuking singing and praying in the spirit, why does he
twice condone and
endorse singing in the spirit, and praying in the spirit?
"You indeed give thats well, but the other is not edified."
If God is
rebuking them, then why does he say that they are
"giving thanks well", when they do the very thing He is supposedly rebuking them for?
"If they were speaking in a tongue then only God could understand it, no one else, unless it was interpreted - which they were not doing."
Thats why God is telling them that
in a gathered assembly if someone gives a message to the assembly in tongues, then
at those times they should have an interpretation. I'm not argueing against that.
"So in essence, Paul is saying, you are wasting your breath."
You actually believe God is telling them they are wasting their breath, as he says to them...
"What is the conclusion then? I will pray with the spirit, and I will also pray with the understanding. I will sing with the spirit, and I will also sing with the understanding.
And...
You indeed give thats well, but the other is not edified.
"There are no instances of a prayer language being spoken and interpreted in the NT."
Doesnt matter. God still endorses it...
"Let him who speaks in a tongue pray that he might interpret"
And...
"If anyone speaks in a tongue, let there be two and at the most three, each in turn, and let one interpret"
Since God instructed them to interpret, its pretty unlikely that it never happened in the 1st century church.
"the reason that tongues was given in prophecy was for those who did not understand the language spoken in the congregation."
Thats one reason, but there are other reasons.
1) A personal prayer language, for the edification of the believer.
2) A message to a gathered assembly, after the interpretation.
"There are no examples of tongues given with interpretation from one person to others that knew the same language.
for instance - when Paul was warned that he would be bound in a prophecy, it was in a language that all could understand that were standing there."
Of course. That was not an example of tongues.
"we must keep in mind that 1 Cor is not referring to today's useage of tongues, but one that was done in gross error and therefore, those who are using this passage to support tongues today are also in error."
No there arent. People gifted in this way are engaging in a spiritual gift that bothers some people, so those people who are bothered by it go on a crusade to try and discredit this gift of the Spirit.
They do this by teaching that scriptures dont mean what they actually teach, but rather what they want them to teach.
"let me ask you - have you ever done any research into how tongues got introduced to this country? do you realize that tongues in america did not show up until about 1900?"
That is mythology.
There have been tongues in the body of Christ for 2000 years now. This has been documented. What
has happened is that at times gifts such as tongues diminished and became less prominant. But they have never dies out. A good book on this topic id "2000 years of Charismatic Christianity".
God bless,
Mike