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Scriptural proofs for KJVOnlyism

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Steve K.

Guest
Not changing the subject.Establishing the authority of the KJV text.The point has been exhausted on this board.I believe by faith the KJV.I've read the material about the versions both ways and it will never be resolved between people only in the hearts of man.We will meet at the judgement seat of Christ and God will sort it out. All of the Hebrew and Greek studies will never prove anything either way.I've read the Hebrew word means this and the Hebrew word means that.I do not go to the Hebrew I have the English.
 

BrianT

New Member
Originally posted by KING JAMES AV 1611:
I've read the Hebrew word means this and the Hebrew word means that.I do not go to the Hebrew I have the English.
And I'm talking about the English, not the Hebrew. How do you know the word "them" refers to the words and not the people previously mentioned in the passage?
 
S

Steve K.

Guest
Because the KJV says so and it is the Word of God.You would have to twist the structure of the verses to make it say anything else.Like I have said in the past the mv's have changed verse structure and words to the readers confusion.
 

BrianT

New Member
Originally posted by KING JAMES AV 1611:
You would have to twist the structure of the verses to make it say anything else.Like I have said in the past the mv's have changed verse structure and words to the readers confusion.
No, maybe you don't understand my question. I'm not talking about MVs or Hebrew or anything except the KJV. I'm only talking about the KJV. How do you know the English word "them" in Psalm 12:7 of the KJV is not referring to the people previously mentioned in the passage in the KJV?
 

Johnv

New Member
Originally posted by KING JAMES AV 1611:
Because the KJV says so and it is the Word of God.You would have to twist the structure of the verses to make it say anything else.Like I have said in the past the mv's have changed verse structure and words to the readers confusion.
I love it how you glossed right over my post. The pronoun "them" is not in the original Hebrew that was used by the KJV translators. If the KJV says so and it is the word of God, then the Hebrew from which it came is NOT the word of God (a heretical thought). You say the MV's have changed the verse structure. Yet if you look at the Hebrew it came from, these other versions seem to better translate the verse. Why do you persist in thinking that the way you read the KJV on this verse is the only correct assumption?
 

Pastor Larry

<b>Moderator</b>
Site Supporter
Steve,

The may be the most non-sensical thing I have ever heard. All the versions read identically in Acts 1:1-2 (except the NKJV and KJV have added in the word "both"). That long paragraph says absolutely nothing of relevance to the KJV. It simply provided you an opportunity to not answer the question that you have been repeatedly asked.

You need to learn to stop listening to people who do not know what they are talking about. Luke wouldn't have used the KJV because he lived 1500 years before it was written and indeed wrote the word of God. It was not the KJV which he wrote which proves that things other than the KJV are the word of God.
 
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Steve K.

Guest
Johnv you are quite obviously dishonest.You have never seen the originals and niether has anyone you know.Too funny for words!
 
S

Steve K.

Guest
I don't listen to you Larry because you have no idea what you are talking about.The KJV is the word of God where other versions contradict they are wrong and so are you.And please none of the gas "they don't contradict"unless your talking to someone who might fall for it. Hey Johnv?
 

BrianT

New Member
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Wake me up when something interesting happens....
 
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Steve K.

Guest
Where in the scripture does Luke say he is writing the scripture? It doesn't so it must not be!Sound like someone I have heard before.
 
S

Steve K.

Guest
You must have been sleeping when someone came in and stole your bible,the KJV.Be careful Brian you have been left with an imposter.
 

Ransom

Active Member
:D
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:D :D
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:D

Steve's getting more incoherent with every post.

I hope that doesn't mean he's about to go postal.
 

Johnv

New Member
Ho, ho, come forth, and flee from the land of the north, saith the LORD Zech. 2:6

See? The KJV also affirms the existence of Santa Claus.
 

Pastor Larry

<b>Moderator</b>
Site Supporter
Originally posted by KING JAMES AV 1611:
I don't listen to you Larry because you have no idea what you are talking about.
Then why don't you show this?? Every effort you have made so far to show has fallen flat on its face. You refuse to answer questions. You refuse to give any biblical support for you position. Why?
 

Ed Edwards

<img src=/Ed.gif>
Originally posted by KING JAMES AV 1611:
I don't listen to you Larry because you have no idea what you are talking about.
According to a recent survey
i made on this board, Pastor Larry's
posts are:

39% right on!
53% knowledgable but slightly off target
0% clueless
8% unable to determine (cause i don't
know that much about that subject)

Therefore, I disagree with "because
you have no idea". I find Pastor Larry
always to be listened to and frequently
a good read.
 

Scott J

Active Member
Site Supporter
Originally posted by Scotty aka Scott J:
Steve K, JYD, Pure Words, Pioneer, Harvest et al.

You guys continually avoid these questions so I wanted to start a thread specifically for them:

What scripture says that only the KJV is the Word of God in English?

What scripture supports any of your KJVO beliefs?


These are simple questions that do not require any of your (il)logical deductions, cut/paste articles, or other evasions. If it is not a man-made heresy, please take this opporunity to prove it.
Four pages and still no scriptural support for KJVOnlyism? Your silence speaks volumes.
 
S

Steve K.

Guest
Scott that is one of the stupidist questions I have heard on this board.Where does the bible say specifically that cigarettes are wrong? Remember it must say cigarettes.You cannot apply a principal.Never mind the truth just show me the word cigarette.Same stupid reasoning.
 

Pastor Larry

<b>Moderator</b>
Site Supporter
Originally posted by KING JAMES AV 1611:
Scott that is one of the stupidist questions I have heard on this board.Where does the bible say specifically that cigarettes are wrong? Remember it must say cigarettes.You cannot apply a principal.Never mind the truth just show me the word cigarette.Same stupid reasoning.
Well folks, there you have it ... "God didn't really say it." What's the alternative?? "We made it up but we need to make it look like God said it."

Ed, you make me laugh ... I am curious as to the 53% ... and the quality of your life if you have time to study my 4500 or so posts ... Man get out a little bit, talk a walk, do something profitable :D :D :D
 
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