Originally posted by swordsman:
Why would the JEWS make a translation of the scriptures for the DOGS?
I can understand AFTER the time of Paul but it makes no sense for them to do this for those they would not even eat with or allow into the inner area of the temple.
What would they do? Read Greek text in the temple?
Why would there be a need for a Greek Old Testament at that time?
AGAIN, why did the JEWS write the *NT* in Greek? Because most Jews read and spoke Greek.
Originally posted by MV-neverist:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr /> Don't be silly. Apocryphal books were added to the LXX later, as they were written.
Whoa,whoa,whoa!!! You condem the KJB translators of violating revelation 22:19;but you seem as though it is OK for them(whoever it was) to ADD the RCC's NON-INSPIRED books to the LXX..(like there ever was one before Christ)
Ladies and Gentlemen,I present to you the amazing,and everchanging double standard!!!
</font>[/QUOTE]
Rev was written AFTER the rest of the books, the apocryphals and the NT books. I no more see a problem with adding apocryphal books to the LXX as I do with the early church adding books to the NT as they were written. Do you think that adding Jude to the NT was in violation of Rev 22:19?
BTW, I don't "condem the KJB translators of violating revelation 22:19",
even though they added those same apocryphal books to the KJV 
Do you?
Originally posted by Deacon:
Anyway back to the second question, Is God's Word perserved in the Septuagint?
"But, when the fulness of time drew near, that the Sun of righteousness, the Son of God should come into the world, whom God ordained to be a reconciliation through faith in his blood, not of the Jew only, but also of the Greek, yea, of all them that were scattered abroad; then lo,
it pleased the Lord to stir up the spirit of a Greek Prince (Greek for descent and language) even of Ptolemy Philadelph King of Egypt, to procure the translating of the Book of God out of Hebrew into Greek. This is the translation of the Seventy Interpreters, commonly so called,
which prepared the way for our Saviour among the Gentiles by written preaching, as Saint John Baptist did among the Jews by vocal." (emphasis added)
"It is certain, that that Translation was not so sound and so perfect, but it needed in many places correction; and who had been so sufficient for this work as the Apostles or Apostolic men?
Yet it seemed good to the holy Ghost and to them, to take that which they found, (the same being for the greatest part true and sufficient) rather than making a new, in that new world and green age of the Church, to expose themselves to many exceptions and cavillations, as though they made a Translations to serve their own turn, and therefore bearing a witness to themselves, their witness not to be regarded." (emphasis added)
"The translation of the Seventy dissenteth from the Original in many places, neither doeth it come near it, for perspicuity, gravity, majesty;
yet which of the Apostles did comdemn it? Condemn it? Nay, they used it...which they would not have done, nor by their example of using it, so grace and comment it to the Church, if it had been unworthy the appellation and name of
the word of God." (emphasis added)
The three quotes above come from the KJV translators, and can be found in any KJV that includes the original preface from the 1611 edition. Sadly (and ironically), there are those on this board who believe the KJV translators were the most knowledgeable Bible historians and translators in the history of mankind while they actually translated the text, but for some reason are idiots when they wrote the preface. Go figure.