epistemaniac
New Member
Please show me where I said that. I have said that "many" Baptists held Kingdom truths dear and they are abandoning them, many times. (I know of many formerly Baptist churches that have dropped "Baptist" from their name because so many mainline Baptist denominations are departing from them.)
But, if I ever said "most", it was inadvertent.
Please show me so I can correct it.
Hebrews 1:8: But unto the Son [he saith], Thy throne, O God, [is] for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness [euthutEs; straightness] [is] the sceptre of thy kingdom.
It should be the , and the word "euthutEs" is literally, "straightness". It is applied directly to God. It is never applied to man in the NT.
It is found in 20 places in the LXX. 1 Kings 3:6 is interesting: It contains both "righteousness" and "straightness". I wonder why the Holy Spirit would be duplicitous?
Oh, look! Psalm 9:8 uses both words as well!
(However, I'm not going to do all your homework for you; you'll have to look at the rest.)
Oh, OK, one more that uses both: Psalm 11:7.
(Thayer's and Strong's are based on the KJV, BTW, not on the Greek; so, when you are quoting from them, you are quoting from the KJV.)
I would just like to close by saying one more thing:
James 2:24: Ye see then how that by works a man is justified (present, passive, indicative; "is being justified"), and not by faith only.
It's not an event, according to Scripture, no matter how badly you want it to be. </font>[/QUOTE]Firstly, I do not "badly" want Justification to be one way versus another. I am content to allow the Bible to dictate to me what Justification is.
Secondly, the problem is, if you appeal to James as proof of justification by process, e.g. justification by works, you are going to find yourself in trouble because James clearly says that if you want to be declared just by law keeping, you have to keep all of the law... for if you break it in one place, you have, in effect, broken all of it.... so how can one be just by keeping the law when, if they break it, they are guilty of breaking the whole law?
Jam 2:10 ESV For whoever keeps the whole law but fails in one point has become accountable for all of it."
Paul is clear that the penalty for law breaking the law is death:
Rom 6:23 esv For the wages of sin is death, but the free gift of God is eternal life in Christ Jesus our Lord."
Further, it is clear also that all... all... have fallen.... Rom 3:23 esv for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God,
I just do not see how you can fail to see the obvious fact that since all have sinned, that anyone who sins is guilty of breaking the law in all points, could ever maintain that people actually become justified by obeying this or that individual law! Paul is so clear on this point: Rom 3:20 esv For by works of the law no human being will be justified in his sight, since through the law comes knowledge of sin.”
You say James 2:24: Ye see then how that by works a man is justified (present, passive, indicative; "is being justified"), and not by faith only."
And???? All James is saying is that true faith produces works. That is his ongoing theme throughout the book; faith without works is a dead faith. That this is his intent, that faith without works is not true faith, is shown by Jam 2:22 esv You see that faith was active along with his works, and faith was completed by his works;”. True saving faith is completed by works. A true faith is, as Luther described it, a “fides vive”, a living faith, and while it is true that salvation is by faith alone, it is also true that it is never by a faith that is alone. Sanctification will always accompany justification, they must never be confused as you and Rome have done, but they must also never be separated as antinomians have done.
Lastly, if you want to insist that Paul and James contradict one another, I have to ask you, if justification before God is by works, how many works does it take?
Blessings,
Ken
