annsni said:
But it's been said that those who have this response to modern music - when it turns their hearts to the Lord and results in praising Him, that it's an emotional response and wrong.
That depends on the emotional response doesn't it. Not all emotional responses are good. Closing one's eyes and silently praying or silently rejoicing is not fleshly by any stretch of the imagination. There is no "display" of the emotions. If the prayer ends up in a loud outward waiing, weeping, uncontrollable sobbing, then that would be a display of emotions, and if the rejoicing would be a yelling, shouting, rolling down the aisles, laughter, etc. that would be a very fleshly display of emotions that is often found in Charismatic churches.
But what if I have a long skirt that is modest and a woman comes to me who LOVES the skirt and wants to get the same one. Does that mean that it's evil?
No, it simply means that some unsaved people have good taste in clothing and that is not wrong.
Quite true. But you avoided my question, and didn't read my post carefully enough. I never said that songs or music didn't have beats. What I asked you is
What kind of beat do you think his music would have had?
No. I don't think the corollary of the statement is always true. If that statement is fully true, then you should be the absolute enemy of everyone around you and the world should hate everything about you.
Jesus said to love your enemies.
Matthew 5:44 But I say unto you, Love your enemies, bless them that curse you, do good to them that hate you, and pray for them which despitefully use you, and persecute you;
--We have a message of love, though we live in a world of hate.
That's not the truth. However, the world will hate Jesus in us. Not all SONGS are Godly. The Word does not point out very clearly that not all MUSIC is Godly.
Yes it does, if you are motivated enough to study your Bible.
But according to what I'm reading you're saying, the JWs are not Godly and they love the KJV so that means that it's ungodly. What you're saying here is totally opposite of what you've been saying.
You make too many logical fallacies.
1st Premise: The J.W.'s are ungodly.
2nd Premise: The J.W.'s use the KJV.
Conclusion: Therefore the KJV is ungodly.
Your conclusion to be drawn is that the KJV is also used by ungodly people. But you drew a conclusion about the character of the KJV. The character of the KJV has nothing to do with your first two premises. The syllogism is illogical.