You do not have one Bible verse that states your opinions concerning the 1611 KJV or other Bible translations. The verses that you cite and quote do not state your claims concerning post-NT Bible translations. You may have dreamed up or invented your own non-scriptural doctrine, but you do not prove that I have done what you allege.
Your allegations are hypocritical and unjust since you do not apply them to your own non-scriptural opinions. You show that you are making unrighteous judgments.
Talk about hypocritical!
Talk about "biblical principles" with no verses.
Your writing skills and pride of man has taken you over the "bible believing" edge and downward.
What exactly do you ever mean by saying you are a "bible believing man"?
Did I ever actually say the KJV states it's inspired alone?
No Sir Pants on Fire I did not.
I did state that ALL scripture is given by inspiration of God...
2 Timothy 3:16
All the major translations say that.
But you have stated that ONLY the originals are inspired.
That means you believe you became a Christian without the inspired word of God, whatever translation was used in your conversion.
No verses in any English bible say "ONLY the originals are inspired" and you always avoid that in your responses preferring to call me a liar in a nicely worded way.
Your mirror broke.
Now you will have x years of ___ ____.
But I am still praying that God will give you a great blessing from the KJV you have read for fifty years.
The bible is a living book not a dead one.
Being born again,
not of corruptible seed,
but of incorruptible,
by the word of God,
which liveth and abideth for ever.
1 Peter 1:23