Slavery

[FollowTheWay]

Because believers are relatives, just as were the Israelites were a nation of relatives, then believers could be considered under that principle.

As far as the principle being applied generally, perhaps you could supply Scripture support?

For if that principle carries the water to that trough of relative exclusion, then that same principle has no warrant to exclude those outside the faith from being taken as slaves and slaves may be gathered from them.

That would follow the OT law which was given in type for guidance.

We are no longer living under OT law. We are living under the second covenant through the death and resurrection of our Lord.

 

[agedman]

We are no longer living under OT law. We are living under the second covenant through the death and resurrection of our Lord.

Agreed.

So, what does the Scriptures teach about slavery?

 

[FollowTheWay]

Agreed.

So, what does the Scriptures teach about slavery?

I've already answered that question but here it is again.

The type of slavery discussed in the NT is much like our view of an "indentured servant" or apprentice.

That is explained in: [Gal 3:28 KJV] 28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.

There are NO slaves in Christ.

I will add as we've discussed I'm talking about the view of slavery by born-again Christians. Those who are of this world (unsaved) take a different view.

 

[agedman]

Galatians 3:

27For all of you who were baptized into Christ have clothed yourselves with Christ. 28There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free man, there is neither male nor female; for you are all one in Christ Jesus. 29And if you belong to Christ, then you are Abraham’s descendants, heirs according to promise.​

The same with the use in this passage from 1 Corinthians 12:

13For by one Spirit we were all baptized into one body, whether Jews or Greeks, whether slaves or free, and we were all made to drink of one Spirit.
​

This is word, "slave," is used to indicate that one has no rights of their own. They are in effect the property of another.

Strong's gives this to help clarify the word in the English:

1401 doúlos (a masculine noun of uncertain derivation) – properly, someone who belongs to another; a bond-slave, without any ownership rights of their own. Ironically, 1401 /doúlos ("bond-slave") is used with the highest dignity in the NT – namely, of believers who willingly live under Christ's authority as His devoted followers.​

Bill Mounce gives this:

Definition:
In the NT a person owned as a possession for various lengths of times (Hebrew slaves no more than seven years, Gentile slaves without time limit), of lower social status than free persons or masters; slaves could earn or purchase their freedom

A male slave, or servant, of various degrees, Mt. 8:9, et al. freq.; a servitor, person of mean condition, Phil. 2:7; fem. δούλη, a female slave; a handmaiden, Lk. 1:38, 48; Acts 2:18; δοῦλος, used figuratively, in a bad sense, one involved in moral or spiritual thraldom, Jn. 8:34; Rom. 6:17, 20; 1 Cor. 7:23; 2 Pet. 2:19; in a good sense, adevoted servant or minister, Acts 16:17; Rom. 1:1; one pledged or bound to serve, 1 Cor. 7:22; 2 Cor. 4:5​

slavish, servile, completely controlled, as a fig. extension of a slavery system in the ancient world,​

​

Therefore, it is important that folks understand that the word is NOT used as one who is an indentured servant who has rights and privileges in which they may exercise as a servant.

It is not appropriate to attempt to put modern connotations of the term "Indentured servant" to that of the Biblical slave.

The slaves of the Biblical accounts (both old and new testament) were far more slave then indentured servant.

 

[Calypsis4]

I am of the opinion that slavery was not so much "permitted" as it was "regulated" by God.

Much like divorce.
Matthew 19:8 He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so.

I agree with that statement completely. God had a divine purpose for allowing slavery to exist among men. After reading about George Whitefield and his loving witness to the poor slaves in the Carolina's...that slavery did much to bring about a frame of mind that they became much more ready in their hearts to call out to God for the salvation of Jesus Christ. The same with Him permitting warfare between nations for undoubtedly many sinners were brought into such desperate conditions that under the threat of death it led many men and women to pray to God for His grace and mercy when in fact, they would not feel the need to do so under any other circumstances in life. The Lord will do whatever it takes to bring sinners to that all important moment that will bring them into the kingdom. May His name be ever praised.

 

[agedman]

I agree with that statement completely. God had a divine purpose for allowing slavery to exist among men. After reading about George Whitefield and his loving witness to the poor slaves in the Carolina's...that slavery did much to bring about a frame of mind that they became much more ready in their hearts to call out to God for the salvation of Jesus Christ. The same with Him permitting warfare between nations for undoubtedly many sinners were brought into such desperate conditions that under the threat of death it led many men and women to pray to God for His grace and mercy when in fact, they would not feel the need to do so under any other circumstances in life. The Lord will do whatever it takes to bring sinners to that all important moment that will bring them into the kingdom. May His name be ever praised.

Paul (as Saul) came from a privelaged background, educated in the best schools, and considered part of the elite ruling class, yet he often used the term that placed himself as enslaved and counting all he lost of this world as not comparable to that he gained.