Originally Posted by agedman
There are those that consider that Christ taught against slavery, but He didn't. Neither did Paul - who told the slave to go back to his master.
This is a mischaracterization, not of their teaching, but of the biblical use of the Greek doulos as well as the Hebrew `ebed, both of which often get translated "slave" but which mean something more akin to "indentured servant." Those called "slaves" in both the Old and the New Testaments were contracted to their so-called masters, and at least as long as Israel actually practiced the Jubilee every seven years -- in which slaves were set free and mortgaged lands were returned to their owners without penalty -- no one was obligated to remain as so-called "slave.
You didn't show any evidence that Christ and Paul taught against slavery.
Rather, YOU admitted that slavery was actually acceptable (even if limited to seven years) and proper.
Thank you for validating what I posted.
Originally Posted by agedman
Whether the master accepted Paul suggestion that he receive the slave as a son, the Scriptures are silent.
Philemon, to whom you refer, was under spiritual obligation to Paul. It is highly unlikely he would ignore the advice of the man who led him to Christ.
Just because Philemon was possibly lead by Paul to the Lord, did not place Philemon under any "spiritual obligation." It is pure speculation on your part that he would "highly unlikely" ignore Paul.
It takes actually LESS speculation that the cultural and reputation pressures would certainly have obliged Philemon to keep the slave a slave (if no more than to pay off the debt accrued).
Perhaps you are attempting to equate the station of the believer's relationship to God as applicable to the believer's relationship as a servant/slave to their owner.
The two are not interchangeable.
Originally Posted by agedman
The OT Hebrew law condones slavery in certain cases.
No, it condones indentured servitude, and expected Israel to continue to recognize the Jubliee years designed to return everything to the way it was at the beginning of the seven-year period.
But never-the-less the Scripture DOES support slavery (unless you don't consider servants and slaves as synonymous in the Scriptures) - and I again thank you for showing the support (though you didn't desire it to be). Exodus 21:1-4,7; Deuteronomy 15:12-18
Originally Posted by agedman
Slavery is not a sin. Sin comes from mistreating a slave.
Wrong. God does not condone the buying selling, bartering or other abuse of a fellow human being that in any way treats that person as chattel.
Wrong.
Again, I point to specific Scriptures that deal with the buying, selling and treatment. God did not condone MISTREATMENT - but that applies to all humankind.
See: Exodus 21:20-21; Exodus 21:26-27, Leviticus 25:44-46; Leviticus 25:48-53; Deuteronomy 20:14; Deuteronomy 21:10-14;
The New Testament does not revise the OT at any point in this matter.
Originally Posted by agedman
Slaves in America were brought to the west coast of Africa by the Africans who wanted to purge the land of various enemy tribal groups and sold to the slave market.
Regardless of how they got placed in the hands of slavetraders, the sin laid in the wrongful ownership of a human life.
Wrong - God judges the mistreatment, not the slavery. See above Scriptures.
Originally Posted by agedman
NOTE: This post is in NO WAY condoning maltreatment of any individual - that is ungodly.
Yet it fails to acknowledge that ownership is a sin, because the poster apparently doesn't understand the nature of the aforementioned Hebrew and Greek words.
How wrong you are. But, then a modernist view would be more in line with what is supported in your posts.
There is NO Scripture that supports a person not owning another person.
That the time is limited or reparations for mistreatment is given in no way obligates one to even suppose the Scriptures do not condone human trading and ownership.
In a couple passages (see Dueteronomy 20 and 21) female captives were taken as war booty, and that certainly was ordered by God.
Originally Posted by agedman
NOTE 2: Abusive forms of slavery is alive and well throughout the world. It has taken another form: drugs, sex, violence, mutilations, ... All engaged when someone desires power over others and will use any means of force to achieve that goal.
Good of you to acknowledge this, as it is absolutely true. However, you should take another look at the biblical application of what we have unfortunately translated as "slave", "slaves", and "slavery."
Nope, don't need to do any re-looking. That is your obligation, because you failed to prove your post - and I have shown by Scriptures that what I posted is accurate to Scripture guidelines and principles.