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Those whom He chose before the foundation of the world. See Ephesians 1.And they are?
Those whom He chose before the foundation of the world. See Ephesians 1.Originally posted by Rev. G:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr /> And they are?
Welcome.Originally posted by lezah521:
Hello - This is my first post on the BaptistBoard.
You have very sneakily changed the text here. The verse does not talk about what God foreknew; it talks about whom he foreknew. That is a significant difference. Your attempt at explaining this passage falls short of what Paul wrote.Originally posted by Paul of Eugene:
And which did he choose? Those whom He foreknew. And what did he foreknow about them? What THEY would do with their opportunity to choose Him!
In regard to your position, you believe that all are "called" equally, correct? There is not a "general" call to all, and an "effectual" call only to the elect, is there?And which did he choose? Those whom He foreknew. And what did he foreknow about them? What THEY would do with their opportunity to choose Him!
I don't think you'll ever get a satisfactory answer about this. Calvinism has the same sort of problem (effective double-predestination, whether or not the intent of double-predestination is there).Originally posted by Rev. G:
One has yet to satisfactorily explain how the Divine Being with absolute and perfect foreknowledge is more loving, etc., when He KNOWS that there will be those who will reject Him and that He will send them to Hell - yet He still permits them to be born anyway.
Consider the case of the rich young ruler which is the start of this thread. There he is being addressed by Jesus, "come, follow me"! This has to be a "calling" by Jesus in the sense of being asked to accept the salvation offered. But the offer was declined.Originally posted by Rev. G:
. . . then consider Romans 8:29-30:
For whom He foreknew, He also predestined
to be conformed to the image of His Son,
that He might be the firstborn among many brethren.
Moreover whom He predestined, these He also called;
whom He called, these He also justified;
and whom He justified, these He also glorified.
You believe that God "foreknew" those who would believe, and that He "predestined" these to sanctification (being conformed to the image of Christ). Notice that the text declares that those who are "predestined" are "called." You make no provision for an effectual calling. Only a general calling. BUT, the text declares that those whom are predestined are called.
You may try to argue that this is a "general" call that goes out to all, but then that doesn't fit with the context of the passage. It is implicit that all that God foreknew He predestined, all that God predestined He called. All that He called (not some) He justified. This is where it breaks down for the non-Calvinist. There is a special, unique calling on these who have been predestined.
Rev. G
The problem with this interpretation of the Romans passage is that Paul puts this "calling" before justification. But we are justified when we have faith. So this special calling has to happen BEFORE someone accepts the offer of salvation, because when that offer is accepted, they are immediately justified.All of us have a calling to service and fuller participation in the kingdom that is not issued to those who decline the offer of salvation.
Absolutely no disagreement there, friend. ALL are called to faith and repentance. This is different from "effecutal calling,"which only the elect receive.Consider the case of the rich young ruler which is the start of this thread. There he is being addressed by Jesus, "come, follow me"! This has to be a "calling" by Jesus in the sense of being asked to accept the salvation offered. But the offer was declined.
You are correct. Paul was not wrong to say that there is a unique calling given to the elect. That is my entire point.Was Paul then wrong, to say that there is a unique calling given to the elect? I would say no.
God calls His people in the conditions and situations they are in. And some have a more difficult time, from a human perspective, than others because of wealth, power, abusive childhoods, poor economic conditions, etc.Originally posted by JohnB:
I mean, if salvation is unconditional and monergistic, why would God say that the difficulty was relative to condition?
Well, first of all, you may have a couple of misunderstandings concerning Calvinism. Salvation is not unconditional--it is conditioned upon faith. It is election to salvation that is unconditional.Why did Jesus say it is more difficult for the rich to enter heaven?
I mean, if salvation is unconditional and monergistic, why would God say that the difficulty was relative to condition.