Your 3 points are arbitrary and not supported by any logical argument or authority.
How can you say this? God saved Abraham while in a completely corrupt culture as a idolater in the Ur of the Chaldees. God can save people who are in cults where the cultic organization (Mormon's; JW's, etc.) do not teach the correct gospel but where the Bible is read and saved family friends may share the gospel truth and they are saved. God's people can exist in ungodly places or else we would never read Revelation 18:4 or 2 Cor. 6:12-17!! Perhaps saved person "would" not leave Rome but they "should" - Rev. 18:4 leave her or any other denomination where the gospel was not being taught or why else would we read such passages in scripture concerning God's people in wrong places:
Rev. 18:4 And I heard another voice from heaven, saying, Come out of her, my people, that ye be not partakers of her sins, and that ye receive not of her plagues.
2 Cor. 6:14 Be ye not unequally yoked together with unbelievers: for what fellowship hath righteousness with unrighteousness? and what communion hath light with darkness?
15 And what concord hath Christ with Belial? or what part hath he that believeth with an infidel?
16 And what agreement hath the temple of God with idols? for ye are the temple of the living God; as God hath said, I will dwell in them, and walk in them; and I will be their God, and they shall be my people.
17 Wherefore come out from among them, and be ye separate, saith the Lord, and touch not the unclean thing; and I will receive you,
Consider some protestant (I'm including non-denoms and everybody else here) hypocrisy. We cite Sola Scriptura (rightly) yet we must recognize that the Church (Catholic Church) canonized it. We often cite Church Fathers, mystics, and others for spiritual authority ignoring that most were Catholic.
This is factually incorrect! Many non-catholics regard the Church Fathers as the history of apostasy. The same Church Father's demonstrate that the "whole" Biblical canon was in tact as early as 140 A.D. (Tertullian) as we have demonstrated on this forum and none have been successful in overthrowing that evidence. All the New Testament books were already written and in possession of the churches prior to 100 A.D. and we have shown that simply by the book of Acts and other scriptures.
You can't come to Christ through the RCC? What about the reformers? They were Catholics who walked away over legitimate concerns, BUT came to a more biblical understanding IN the Catholic Church.
The gospel is the power of salvation not Rome or any other denomination. The testimony of the Reformers was that it was IN SPITE OF ROME's doctrine they came to Christ in salvation.
I disagree with the metaphysical basis of transubstantiation, but the Eucharistic nonetheless celebrates Christ. I could easily argue that no one can come to faith through the teaching of Independent Fundamentalist Baptist, especially when they treat the KJV in an idolatrous fashion.
Amazing ignorance!! You know very well that those who are KJV only do not worship it or even claim to worship it. They simply defend it as the inspired translation of the scriptures. However, in contrast Rome makes the claim that the wafer and wine actually turn into the literal Christ and they actually perform acts of worship toward it. You are not even be rational or honest here in the least.
I could say that most protestants deny the authority of Jesus and His prayer for unity when we make of our faith a smorgasbord buffet of theological ideas to reject or accept as though each man or woman is the arbiter of truth; even if it is the pastor with his doctorate, am I really always right???
The issue is not whether any denomination has all the truth or obeys all the truth as none do. So your argument is baseless. The issue is whether or not a particular denomination is in direct violation of those teachings that the scriptures demand are essential to escape being condemned as heretical and apostate. Rome violates essentials of Scripture that the scriptures explicity condemn as her apostate and heretical - Gal. 1:8-9; Exodus 20:4-5; 1 Tim. 4:1-5; Rev. 17-18; etc.
Look at GreekTim's signature line:
Hermeneutic: messianic/christocentric & missional based on Luke 24:44-48
Bibliology: ISV or ESV preferred; full-inerrantist, ipsissima vox; Sturzian style textual critic position
Soteriology: 5 point Calvinist; supralapsarian
Ecclesiology: reformed SBC; plurality of elders; elder led
Eschatology: Amillennial; partial-preterist
No offense intended, but this is ridiculous and I have a list of theological and praxis preferences at least as long! We pick and choose how to interpret truth and the RCC offers the Magisterium to simplify the faith of adherents and clarity on what the Bible means. I get it, I don't agree with this autocratic approach, but there are FLAWS in our approach as well.
The Scriptures clearly teach and clearly warn that the professing kingdom of God on earth will grow increasingly corrupt (Mt. 13) in so much that Jesus even asks this rhetorical question about its state when he returns:
Luke 18:8 I tell you that he will avenge them speedily. Nevertheless when the Son of man cometh, shall he find [the] faith on the earth?
Paul repeatedly warns of the rise of apostasy after the apostolic age (Acts 20:29-31; 1 Tim. 4:1; 2 Tim. 4:1-5; 2 Thes. 2:3-12):
2 Tim. 4:13 But evil men and seducers shall wax worse and worse, deceiving, and being deceived.
Jesus explicitly warns of the very same thing - Mt. 24:5,24-25
Hence, whether you agree with GreekTims signature line or not, such clarification and distinction is necessary in the day we live because of what the Scripture clearly and explicitly predict will charactrize the time between the apostles and Christ's coming.
2 Tim. 4:13 But evil men and seducers shall wax worse and worse, deceiving, and being deceived.
What about this passage?
Jesus said to them, "I tell you the truth, unless you eat the flesh of the Son of Man and drink his blood, you have no life in you. Whoever eats my flesh and drinks my blood has eternal life, and I will raise him up at the last day. For my flesh is real food and my blood is real drink . Whoever eats my flesh and drinks my blood remains in me, and I in him." (John 6:53-56 NIV84)
Jesus says that we have to eat His flesh and drink His blood and then says that it is REAL food and drink! This passage can easily, on its own merit mean that Jesus is telling us to literally take His life (blood) and His sacrifice (body) into our very being; with no ascetic divorce between immaterial and material (spirit & body); no dualism; just all of Jesus.
The text goes on to say that "On hearing it, many of his disciples said, "This is a hard teaching. Who can accept it?" (John 6:60 NIV84)
If all Jesus was saying is that once a month, once a quarter, or two times a year, we would eat some wonder bread cut into squares and drink a thimble of grape juice, then WHY was it a hard saying????
There is absolutely no excuse for you or anyone else on this forum to fail to grasp the meaning of Christ in this passage as this passage has been minutely explained in detail many times by its immediate context.
Jesus TWICE just before making the above passage equates eating and drinking as metaphors for coming and believing in him or partaking of him by faith in the gospel:
John 6:35 And Jesus said unto them, I am the bread of life: he that cometh to me shall never hunger; and he that believeth on me shall never thirst.
Jn. 6:47 Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that believeth on me hath everlasting life.
48 I am that bread of life.
After he commanded them to eat and drink of him he explicitly told them his language was spiritual and referred precisely to the same thing he had previously told them in verses 44-45 or about believing in him:
Jn. 6:63 It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life.
64 But there are some of you that believe not. For Jesus knew from the beginning who they were that believed not, and who should betray him.
65 And he said, Therefore said I unto you, that no man can come unto me, except it were given unto him of my Father.
And when it was all said and done Peter understood what he was saying that it was not his actual blood and body they were to literally digest but it was his "WORDS" that actually conveyed what was essential to partake by faith for eternal life:
John 6:68 Then Simon Peter answered him, Lord, to whom shall we go? thou hast the words of eternal life.
69 And we believe and are sure that thou art that Christ, the Son of the living God.
Hence, there is absolutely no excuse for embracing this paganistic interpretation by Rome in this context IF the scripture is to be interpeted by its context??
What you have demonstrated is that you are confused and leavened by Rome.
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