stilllearning
Active Member
It appears your friend quoted the NKJV, not the KJV. Besides not having the word "to" the NKJV uses the English form "incorruptable" rather than "uncorruptable" as in the KJV at Romans 1:23.
The Greek word aphthartos (Strong's # 862) can indicate that something is imperishable or immortal; the word is otherwise variously rendered in the KJV as: "incorruptible" 4 times, "not corruptible" once, and "immortal" once.
It would be interesting to conjecture why the king's revisers choose the "un-" prefix in this one place here rather than the "in-" prefix. The "in-" prefix seems stronger (impossible, cannot ever be, incapable of) than "un-" (the state of not being or having been).
Thank you very much for that explanation.
This particular pastor, used to be my pastor years ago and back then, he somewhat encouraged me to use the NKJV, but I declined.
I never held it against him then or now; But that clearly is the difference in the verse.
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My record is clear for the past few years that I have been here; I have never criticized anyone for whatever Bible they used: I never called any Bible a work of Satan.........
In short, all the terrible things that have been said about me in this thread, are untrue.
(My posts here, speak for themselves.)
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My only qualm is with Bibles that remove words, or cast doubt on them.
For instance, the last passage in Mark 16:....
This verses stayed in the Bible for over 300 years(before the KJB), yet W&H can declare that they might not should be their, and poof.....doubt is cast on them.
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Then point being made in this threadThe thing that I learned), is....“Why I am so stubborn, when it comes to the words of the Bible”!
And that is because, I don’t want to loose faith in God’s Word.
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