Thinkingstuff
Active Member
As I study history and critically look at the scriptures I've developed some consern. For instance How did we settle with the Canon of the protestant OT? It doesn't seem to make sence. I often hear that Jesus supported a "canon" in his day by saying something about prophets from Able to Zachariah and that Zachariah being the last book in the prophet section of the Tanakh supports the Jewish exclussion of other books. However, it is clear that Jewish cannon for the OT wasn't settled until 300 AD. The Massorites are dated to about 500 AD long after the establishment of Christianity.
Looking at the Tanakh we see in the Neviim that the last prophet mentioned is Malachi and using Jesus support would exclude books like Malachi and the entire Ketuvim. Also why so much attention to Tanakh when its clear that the organization of most protestant bibles are based on the LXX? So, we organize our bibles like the LXX which is inclusive of other books but only select books from the Tanakh? When looking at Cannon when was it decided that only the 39 books of the OT were inspired? Long before the reformation canon was already determined by 4 councils and note that each of these councils include "appocryphal works".
In fact the more I study these matters the more I have in mind a continuum of books that are inspired rather than a hard canon. It seems in Jesus day canon was very fluid nature. Torah was accepted beyond any reproach. Yet other communities accepted other writing than the 39 books such as the qumran community and the alexandrian community. Certainly we don't know to what level the writer of Hebrew took the book of 2 Macc. Nor how much Jude took inspiration the Assumption of Moses or 1 Enoch. Studing the early writings of the Church there was considerable inspiration derived from these other books. In my mind I see a continuum in which certian books like those of the Torah were of Most importance and the 27 books of the NT followed suite as entirely inspired however other works were reviewed at verying levels of accepted inspiration. Note the apocryphal works were so important that King James commissioned that they would be included in his 1611 version. So there is a level of acceptance of an importance in these books. Why is it now we protestants have become so dogmatic about just these 39 books of the OT? When did this occur and how is it validated?
Looking at the Tanakh we see in the Neviim that the last prophet mentioned is Malachi and using Jesus support would exclude books like Malachi and the entire Ketuvim. Also why so much attention to Tanakh when its clear that the organization of most protestant bibles are based on the LXX? So, we organize our bibles like the LXX which is inclusive of other books but only select books from the Tanakh? When looking at Cannon when was it decided that only the 39 books of the OT were inspired? Long before the reformation canon was already determined by 4 councils and note that each of these councils include "appocryphal works".
In fact the more I study these matters the more I have in mind a continuum of books that are inspired rather than a hard canon. It seems in Jesus day canon was very fluid nature. Torah was accepted beyond any reproach. Yet other communities accepted other writing than the 39 books such as the qumran community and the alexandrian community. Certainly we don't know to what level the writer of Hebrew took the book of 2 Macc. Nor how much Jude took inspiration the Assumption of Moses or 1 Enoch. Studing the early writings of the Church there was considerable inspiration derived from these other books. In my mind I see a continuum in which certian books like those of the Torah were of Most importance and the 27 books of the NT followed suite as entirely inspired however other works were reviewed at verying levels of accepted inspiration. Note the apocryphal works were so important that King James commissioned that they would be included in his 1611 version. So there is a level of acceptance of an importance in these books. Why is it now we protestants have become so dogmatic about just these 39 books of the OT? When did this occur and how is it validated?