Joseph said:
I think the difference comes in that the Biblical writers offered their reinterpretation under the authority of the inspiration of God. I am not sure we can do that in modern times, or else we would end up with subjective truth, guided mainly on what anyone might believe based on what they think God may have revealed to them. This would, IMO, lead to confusion and a post-modern low view of Scripture with no objective standard for truth, and heresy would abound.
Except that there
are hermeneutical rules. (Still waiting for SBC to illuminate us about them.) The primary rule was laid down by Christ Himself:
Search the scriptures; for in them ye think ye have eternal life: and they are they which testify of me.
I object to the term "reinterpreted". What Paul gleaned from the narratives was either in them, and was intended to be in them, or it wasn't. They either testified of Christ or they didn't. To suggest that the meaning wasn't there, but was implanted later, is to make Paul and the Holy Ghost liars.
If you're not saying that, but saying it was always there, but could only be gleaned by an Apostle, then the narratives do us no good whatever. All Paul would have had to say was, "As an Apostle of Christ, and by the inspiration of the Holy Ghost, I say cast out Judaism and the Law." But he didn't. He appealed to the authority of Scripture, and such an appeal implies the expectation that others reading the passages intelligently and devoutly could come to the same conclusions.
I agree that Postmodernism is something to be wary of. But no one is advocating a private interpretation here. It's only in these "modern times" that the Song is interpreted as merely a love song celebrating the joys of sex. (Talk of your "low views of Scripture"!) Since ancient times in Judaism and Christianity, God and His elect were seen in this Song. If the Song does not testify of Christ, how is it a better work than the works of Chaucer or Shakespeare?
In this thread, we have two novices claiming they have a better grip on hermeneutics than—not just me—but all the sages of the past. Even that of some modern scholars whose books they've no doubt been required to read. (And
I'm the arrogant one?)
Let's sum up SBC's objections to a spiritual interpretation of the Song of Solomon.
</font>
- 1) No one agrees on what it means. This is a false statement. There may be minor differences in the reading of some passages, but, by and large, there is consensus among those who see the Song as allegorical.</font>
- 2) You can't find that meaning coming to the Song alone. True, one must read it as Scripture understanding that the true and sole subject of Scripture is Christ and Redemption. So the point's moot. BTW, he later abandoned this line of reasoning after being shown that it was invalid.</font>
- 3) "This view comes pretty close to spiritualizing a text to make it say something that is not there." This is just a way of saying that allegorical views are in and of themselves invalid. Again, a premise shown quite conclusively to be false.</font>
- 4) It's not a surface meaning. He objects to being required to "dig," thinking that having to dig for something makes it invalid. I think this is more a character issue than an intellectual one. He wants it simple and something easily understood. Honestly, this argument strikes me as coming from laziness more than anything else. If I'm wrong, then maybe he can post the hermeneutic principle requiring ease of interpretation. Regardless, I've posted the Scriptural admonitions that say otherwise.</font>
I've answered every objection he's raised. More than that, I've shown from the Scriptures that seeing Christ and His bride in the Song is a natural and logical conclusion from the doctrines of marriage. He, on the other hand, has yet to show me which hermeneutic principle I, Spurgeon, Henry, and a host of sages from the past have violated to "force" an unintended meaning from the Song. He just keeps insisting, "it's not there."
That's okay, though. I have no time for lackadaisical Bible study.