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Speaking in tongues; for Baptists

EdSutton said:
You do, I hope, realize that the inclusion of the word "unknown" by the translators, in every citation with 'tongues' in the KJV is in italics, meaning that the translators 'supplied' a word with no textual basis in the Greek or Hebrew languages, don't you? Just FTR.

Ed

Regardless, the tongue spoken of in the second verse was spoken to God, not men. The interpretation given should have been an interpretation reflecting the tongue was to God.
 

Bismarck

New Member
May I please most humbly make an observation??

All these questions begin with the words "I believe"...

To my mind, this makes what you believe the center of the issue, the center of focus, the center of debate...

But your beliefs are not so high & mighty, IMO...

The center of focus should be, "What does Scripture say, and do you bend your beliefs to acknowledge that what Scripture says is true?"


Have I made any sense?
 

Scarlett O.

Moderator
Moderator
rlvaughn said:
James, repeat after me, "hominy, hominy, hominy, hominy..." :tongue3:

garfield-laughing-ani.gif
rlvaughn, it's homina, not "hominy"!

Goodness, brother....it's verbage, not a vegetable!! :laugh: I'm going to be laughing for the next 25 years over this one! :saint:

 

rlvaughn

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Bismarck, I think your observation is a fair one. I hope the following will help explain. The original post(s) were designed as a poll rather than a debate. This purpose of this poll is to find out what you believe. Hopefully what you believe (you generically, as in anyone who responds) is based on what the Scripture teaches, but that might not be the case with everyone.
 

EdSutton

New Member
His Blood Spoke My Name said:
Regardless, the tongue spoken of in the second verse was spoken to God, not men. The interpretation given should have been an interpretation reflecting the tongue was to God.
God needs an interpreter?? :rolleyes:

Ed
 
No, but according to 1 Corinthians 14:2 when man speaks in an unknown tongue, he is not speaking to man, but to God.

Verse 4 declares when one speaks in an unknown tongue, he edifys himself and no one else.

Verse 13 says if one speaks in an unknown tongue, he is to pray that he may be able to interpret what he just spoke.

Verse 14 Paul goes on to say that if he prayed in an unknown tongue, his spirit was doing the praying, but his understanding was unfruitful.

Verse 19 Paul lets people know that the unknown tongue is not as important as speaking in a language that people understand.

Verse 27 states emphatically that there must be an interpreter whenever an unknown tongue is spoken.

If an unknown tongue is spoken, it must be to God according to Paul and it must be interpreted. The interpretation must be from man to God as that is the tongue was ... from man to God.
 

EdSutton

New Member
His Blood Spoke My Name said:
No, but according to 1 Corinthians 14:2 when man speaks in an unknown tongue, he is not speaking to man, but to God.

Verse 4 declares when one speaks in an unknown tongue, he edifys himself and no one else.

Verse 13 says if one speaks in an unknown tongue, he is to pray that he may be able to interpret what he just spoke.

Verse 14 Paul goes on to say that if he prayed in an unknown tongue, his spirit was doing the praying, but his understanding was unfruitful.

Verse 19 Paul lets people know that the unknown tongue is not as important as speaking in a language that people understand.

Verse 27 states emphatically that there must be an interpreter whenever an unknown tongue is spoken.

If an unknown tongue is spoken, it must be to God according to Paul and it must be interpreted. The interpretation must be from man to God as that is the tongue was ... from man to God.
Funny, I just read all the verses you posted in my Bible (NKJV) and did not see the word "unknown" there at all. Nor have I found a word that would be translated as "unknown" in the Greek texts, either. Ya' think maybe this just might be a poor rendition by the KJV?

The rest of you can stay up if you would like; I'm going to bed.

Ed
 
do you think the problem could be with the other versions and not the kjv?

Geneva says strange tongue
GWN says another language. it clearly shows this other language is not a known tongue, for, no one understands him.
NLT states the tongues no man can understand for you are talking to God
the RWB uses unknown tongue

BTW, the NKJV does say it is an unknown tongue. It says NKJ 1 Corinthians 14:2 For he who speaks in a tongue does not speak to men but to God, for no one understands him; however, in the spirit he speaks mysteries

If it were not an unknown tongue, someone would understand him.

Verse 14 in the NKJV also show it is an unknown tongue

1 Corinthians 14:14 For if I pray in a tongue, my spirit prays, but my understanding is unfruitful.

If he knew what he was praying in the tongue, his understanding would not be unfruitful.
 

rbell

Active Member
my experience has been...

Rapidly repeating "whostollamyhonda" does two positive things:
1. Convinces the happy folk around you that you've been blessed and can speak it with the best of them.
2. If you're really lucky, someone will give you a honda. Sure it's stolen, but ultimately it's a matter of faith.
 
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