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===Originally posted by csmith:
It is obvious from the context that the Christians at Corinth were speaking "known" languages, but not known to those present.
Originally posted by csmith:
[QB] UZThd:
U said it, "Of course, something is not evidenced just because someone has an opinion on it or can provide list a of adherents to a view."
You sure like to throw the ThD's around as if they add something to the consensus of plain Scripture though. I could easily gather a list of Doc's myself to proport the opposite opinions. Those men mean nothing to the truth of God's Word.
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??? It was not I that claimed to be so bright that my view should be obvious to all despite their reasonings...that was...ummm...who did that...oh yes, that was you who implied that--wasn't it! So, docs are not necessary for pride to grow are they?
It seems to me that YOU are the one who is throwing his weight around when you dismiss the other view and assert that yours is "OBVIOUS." Pride is not necessarily just gained by a degree..is it?
Education is not solid proof of a sound hermeneutic , but neither is being uneducated.
Therefore, if you'd like to actually deal with issues instead of persons, then, convincingly counter these:
1) why do Greek lexicons say 'glossa' refers to unintelligible ecstatic utterances?
2) why is laleo the verb in Acts 2:4 and not lego?
3) why are they heteros tongues and not allos tongues?
These terms are inspired, therefore, shouldn't we understand them?
(BTW, David, is it fun yet?)
[ April 21, 2005, 04:45 PM: Message edited by: UZThD ]
Originally posted by csmith:
Those men mean nothing to the truth of God's Word.
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But YOU do...I see.