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'spirit' or 'the Spirit'?

N

natters

New Member
Luke 10:21:

Pre-KJV Bibles:
Wycliffe "...he gladded in the Holy Ghost..."
Tyndale "...rejoiced Jesus in the Spirit..."
Cranmer "...rejoiced Jesus in the Holy Ghost..."
Geneva "...rejoiced Jesus in the Spirit..."
Bishop's "...Jesus rejoiced in the Spirit..."

Post-KJV Bibles:
Young's Literal "...was Jesus glad in the Spirit..."
Rotherham's "...exulted he in the Holy Spirit..."


"Modern Versions":
ASV "...he rejoiced in the Holy Spirit..."
NASB "...He rejoiced greatly in the Holy Spirit..."
ESV "...he rejoiced in the Holy Spirit..."
RSV "...he rejoiced in the Holy Spirit..."
NIV "...Jesus, full of joy through the Holy Spirit..."
Amplified "...He rejoiced and gloried in the Holy Spirit..."
NLT "...Jesus was filled with the joy of the Holy Spirit..."
CEV "...Jesus felt the joy that comes from the Holy Spirit..."
World English "...the Holy Spirit made Jesus very happy..."
Weymouth "...Jesus was filled by the Holy Spirit with rapturous joy..."

Revisions of the KJV:
NKJV "...Jesus rejoiced in the Spirit..."
LITV "...Jesus rejoiced in the Spirit..."

ALL Greek manuscripts:
"...tw pneumati..." (the Spirit)

As you can see "the" Spirit (or "the" Holy Spirit/Ghost) is in virtually all Bibles, including all Greek manuscripts and texts. Yet in this verse, the KJV has "...Jesus rejoiced in spirit...", droppping the definite article ("the") and effectively removing the Holy Spirit from this verse, despite the Greek and most other Bibles preserving it. I searched through Riplinger's book "New Age Bible Versions" and quickly lost count of how many times she said that "spirit" is a New Age corruption of "the Spirit" or "the Holy Spirit". Yet this is exactly what the KJV has done in this verse, with no apparent textual or translational or theological reason. The only pre-KJV English Bible I could find that also dropped the "the" is the Catholic Douay-Rheims.

Can anyone offer an explanation?
 
HankD

HankD

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Actually, the KJV "in spirit" is an acceptable translation.

Sometimes in koine it is acceptable to treat the definite article in a phrase as anarthrous and an anarthrous phrase as if the definite article were present.

John 1:1 has both conditions, Literally:

In beginning was the word and the word was with the God and God was the word.

KJV John 1:1 In the (definite article added) beginning was the Word, and the Word was with (definite article omitted) God, and the Word was God (yes, Word and God are reversed in the koine in the last phase of the sentence).

HankD
 
D

DeclareHim

New Member
Although it may be an acceptable form of translation I believe this verse is definetly talking about the Holy Spirit and should be capitalized. Just another example of how the KJV messed up translation.

1cross+3nails=4given
 
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