What you post here supports the idea that this warning was for first century Jews who were to flee the NT period of persecution that was coming upon them between66-70 ad.Actually dispensational theology teaches that the Lord's coming for Israel is different from the church on account of it being based off Jewish sermon (mt. 24:20):
"but pray ye that your flight be not in the winter, neither on the sabbath day" (kjv)
Christians don't live strictly in Jerusalem/Israel as the Jews will, so they shouldn't have to pray that their flight from Jerusalem doesn't happen on a Jewish sabbath, which Christians don't observe.
Deut. 30:3 also states that God shall "return" after the Jews' great tribulation (verse 1). If God dwells in the church today through us (eph 4:6), that must mean that God departs from the Jews, in order to "return" to them. How else could this happen unless the Church is removed and God's presence among the Jews with her? These views are not a definitive list of pre trib reasons why Jesus raptures the Church first. These views are found in Chafer's Systematic Theology.
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Not you bring out 1 cor10:32 as if this is a major text.....but it is not.
It speaks of......unsaved jews,....unsaved gentiles........and then the church of God...Jew and gentile,as one new man In Christ. Nothing to see here.
[Personal attack edited] It does not matter if they read a few prophecy books or not.maybe a study of the book of James is in order before your calendar gets adjusted.
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