John of Japan,
	
	
		
		
			This is baloney. You know I answered this, to my satisfaction if not to yours. Frankly, the non-literalists have more trouble with such passages than I do.
		
		
	 
John...yes you offered a brief response, however it really did not provide a satisfactory answer.
Let me demonstrate.
The main gist of your response was...the word for stars, could also be meteor....it could, but it could also mean stars as in light givers like our SUN.
When this language is employed by Joseph in His dream sequences...lets see;
6 And he said unto them, Hear, I pray you, this dream which I have dreamed:
7 For, behold, we were binding sheaves in the field, and, lo, my sheaf arose, and also stood upright; and, behold, your sheaves stood round about, and made obeisance to my sheaf.
8 And his brethren said to him, 
Shalt thou indeed reign over us? or shalt thou indeed 
have dominion over us? And they hated him yet the more for his dreams, and for his words.
9 And he dreamed yet another dream, and told it his brethren, and said, Behold, I have dreamed a dream more; and, behold, 
the sun and the moon and the eleven stars made obeisance to me.
The language of the dreams had to do with His REIGN over them.
He does not say, by the way......sun moon and meteors....he says stars, light givers...
	
	
		
		
			And yet here you are again. Don't you think you've overworked the theme? 
		
		
	 
No. I do not think it is over worked. I think it is over looked.
I and others see a link in the language...a Divinely given template in order that we could properly understand the events of Pentecost as God intended them to be understood.
Other than having a history lesson on the destruction of Babylon, or Idumea, premill persons would skip over these verses as if they are useless,
I will show this using that man who opposed Gentry on Precept Austin...
If you noticed his commentary on revelation 6:12-17...he is suggesting the end of the world, or some kind of supernatural opening and closing of the sky by God???
He mentions a few of these OT verses ,so he knows they are there , but he cannot or will not connect the dots.
At one point he says....one could be tempted to "spiritualize the passage"...lol.....he should have tried to it would have helped him.
I have not seen a premill commentary deal with this language which is central to understand the olivet discourse, as well as Joel, the day of Pentecost, the end of the jewish age, or theocracy..
	
	
		
		
			How about if you go back and answer what my thread (the first one in the series) was about, namely, if all the first advent prophecies were literally fulfilled
		
		
	 
I agree that many verses were literally fulfilled. I think there is a reason for that. the reason being that The King was coming to Zion and Jerusalem...he was taking Zion and Jerusalem...as David did in 2sam 5:7...
Then He taught the Spiritual realities of the Kingdom reign....MT 5 -7 is for us...the whole OT is for us...it speaks of Jesus;
You said in a one sentence response Isa 60-66 is written for Jews...I say while they were given the oracles of God...it is written for all the people of God;
11 Now all these things happened unto them for examples: and they are written for our admonition, upon whom the ends of the world are come.
27 And beginning at Moses and all the prophets, he expounded unto them in all the scriptures the things concerning himself.
	
	
		
		
			, why would 2nd coming prophecies not be literally fulfilled?
		
		
	 
They will be literally fulfilled
	
	
		
		
			(For the record, Chilton never answered this or even dealt with it. Frankly, I think it's not answerable, which is why "spiritualizers" here on the BB keep avoiding it.)
		
		
	 
It is dealt with in this way....His attempt is to show the book was written to comfort those in the first century under going persecution, and inform them that Jesus indeed was on the throne.