Nope.
And no one in over 2000 years has ever said what you say.
That may be true it it neither proves nor disproves his claim.
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Nope.
And no one in over 2000 years has ever said what you say.
This is the problem. You do not, like the other fella, know what it means to interpret the Bible literally. You guys make bad arguments because of this and ask questions such as this.
When one interprets the Bible literally it does nothing to take away from the genre of the language. To interpret the Bible in a wooden literal sense, of which no real student of scripture does, is to miss this.
However, where prophecy and apocalyptic language is concerned we know that what is being said represents something literal.
In contrast parables are meant to convey a principle or idea.
The book of Revelation is meant to convey actual literal events not simply ideas.
"Revmitchell, post: 2862356, member: 1536"]
All of the prophecies of Christ and things surrounding Him were fulfilled literally.
The book of Revelation is about Him and His work in this world at a specific time.
The descriptive language in Revelation communicates literal events not principles or ideas. It communicates things about literal people not principles of ideas.
The genre is apocalyptic.That is the genre of Revelation.
To interpret it allegorically is to miss its genre.
Since the people and events are intended to communicate literal events and people that is the literal interpretation.
Further, The literal interpretation also interprets the book of Genesis literally meaning Adam and Eve were literally people who God literally fellowshipped with as literally described in scripture.
The enmity between the seeds is not allegorical language but represents literal people and a literal conflict between them. The events surrounding the return of Christ are literal events not simply spiritual.
Now whether one agrees with that should not affect the ability to understand that. How one who studies scripture doesn't already know these things is beyond me.
I understand literal interpretation quite well, despite your claims to the contrary.
First off, I apologize for the two posts above as I believe they should have been in the other thread.If you did you wouldn't ask some of the questions you do whether you agree with it or not.
First off, I apologize for the two posts above as I believe they should have been in the other thread.
Second, you provide, literally, no evidence, yet make big sweeping gestures as though thrashing your hand through the air somehow gives you legitimacy.
I answered your claims, one by one, and you are metaphorically sticking your fingers in your ears and saying "la, la, la" with the idea that somehow this makes your claims valid.
You have been given ample time to prove your point and you have failed. Why? Because you cannot prove a myth that you have bought into, that comes from a quack theologian in the 1800s.
If your view has merit, you could prove it in the Bible and you have done nothing to that end. Literally nothing.
We all can read. You have never provided any biblical evidence for a pre-trib rapture and you certainly cannot provide anything in the book of Revelation. But, this is for the other topic, not this one that is dedicated to who the woman is in Revelation 12.Just because you disagree doesn't mean I have nor proven it. As this post I quote here is an example your posts are childish. I will leave you to it.