Supposedly "KJV Only" Refuted At This Link

[Van]

Whereas Passover can have multiple uses for why I would resist @Van " if " he chooses in making a big deal out of that one to say that Passover should be removed from the scripture because it can cause confusion. Everything has to be defined by how it is used in the verse in the context of the message.

One falsehood after another folks. "Passover" is an apt translation.
Pay no attention to those who misrepresent others to advance poor translation.

 

[rlvaughn]

Easter and Reformation Era Bibles-

We;; that link I provided above seems to have that KJV site to discredit Tyndale as coining the word Passover even though they credit him as coining Easter.

Thanks. I rechecked that link. I must say I find their explanation confusing:

Moreover, we have eliminated the Trinitarian Bible Society's claim that William Tyndale "coined" the word "passover." This argument does not carry weight since the English words "pass over" and "passover" -- used in the translation of Exodus 12:11 and 12:13 [where the Hebrew word "pechah" is found] -- make literal sense. Strong's Concordance includes the words "leap" and "pass over" to define the word "pacash" from which "pechah" is derived.

That the English words "pass over" and "passover" make literal sense has no bearing on whether Tyndale would have been the first to translate and use the words that way in the Bible, so far as I can figure out.

However, I have done some more research on the word. If the transcribed Wycliffe versions at Biblegateway can be trusted for accuracy, the "Later Version" of the Wycliffe Bible (circa 1395, and possibly mostly the work of John Purvey) used Passover in Exodus 12:11. "And ye shall eat it thus; ye shall gird up your reins, and ye shall have shoes on your feet, and ye shall hold your staff in your hand, and ye shall eat it hastily; for it is the Passover, that is, the Passing Over of the Lord." It is found in over 40 other verses as well. The explanation in the "Easter and Reformation Era Bibles" link about it making literal sense doesn't make sense to me, as to the origins of the word. However, if John Purvey used it in his revision of Wycliffe's Bible over 100 years before Tyndale, then Tyndale certainly was not the one who coined it. Not sure how we could have missed this. I am keeping a bit of skepticism for now, and will hope to check this out further (something more original/closer to the source than a Biblegateway transcription, where it obviously has updated spelling).

 

[Conan]

It did not sound like you had the real Wycliffe version before you. Make sure it’s not a “Terence Noble” edition, who updated the language. There are many problems with faulty transcriptions and in the “Noble” version “updating”

 

[Conan]

Confirmed, Bible Gateway has the not real Terence Noble edition. It’s not really a Wycliffe edition. William Tyndale did coin the word Passover.

 

[Hark]

Sir, you may twist-n-shout all you like in trying to defend the KJV's "Easter" goof, but the SIMPLE TRUTH is, Easter & passover are different observances. And, for the umpteenth time, Luke was referring only to passover, as Easter didn't exist then. The translation is supposed to reflect LUKE'S written thoughts, not those of the translator. You simply CANNOT actually defend the KJV's goof successfully. But I'll credit you for putting up one of the best fights I've seen in some 40 years of working against the KJVO myth. But it's still a loser.

Everyone.

Originally, I had believed at one KJV site that the KJV translators had it as Easter because of Passover is a specific day before the 7 days of the unleavened bread & they had reasoned because Herod was not a Jew, but seeking to please the Jews, they assumed the KJV translators was referring to King Herod's celebration of the pagans celebration of the pagan Easter.

Then I had learned that unleavened bread is also eaten on the day of the Passover on the 14th ( Leviticus 23:5 & Numbers 28:16 ) but the designation of the 7 days of unleavened bread was that festivity that starts on the 15th ( Leviticus 23:6 & Numbers 28:17 ) when only unleavened bread can be eaten following the day of the Passover on the 14th. So it explained why Luke 22:1 & Luke 22:7 as Passover referred to the first day of the unleavened bread because they were supposed to eat only unleavened bread on that day too, but with the Passover lamb on the 14th, but the 7 days of the unleavened bread started on the 15th. So in Jewish tradition as far as the Passover goes, it was also known as the first day of the unleavened bread only because that was when they are commanded to start eating unleavened bread with the Passover, but the actual day as designated the 7 days of the only eating unleavened bread starts on the 15th.

But I have learned that the KJV site was making an assumption about why the KJV translators had it as Easter in Acts 12:4 in regards to the pagan King Herod waiting after celebrating the pagan Easter & not just referring to the Jewish festivity held in that time of month of Spring, BECAUSE Tyndale had it as Easter in the N.T. in Tyndale's Bible to refer to the same Jewish festivity as he had translated Passover in English for the first time for the O.T. in Tyndale's bible which came before the KJV Bible

Now the false charge of Tyndale not having time to translate Easter to Passover in the N.T. by anti-KJVers is obvious because Wycliffe's Bible which was before Tyndale's Bible left pascha in the Greek untranslated as he did for pesach in the Hebrew in the O.T. Therefore Tyndale coined the phrase Easter first for the English Bible as far as we know.

That meant that Tyndale meant Easter to represent the Jewish Passover of pesach in the O.T. the same as pasach the N.T.

So regardless of why the KJV left it as Easter or the charge that a prelate had changed it in Acts 12:4 from Passover back to Easter at the KJV translators' protests, Tyndale meant for Easter in the N.T. as a reference the Jewish Passover in the O.T. and proof of that goes to how Tyndale used "esterlambe" in Luke 22:7 of the Tyndale's Bible to define the offering from the day of the Passover which is now defined as Passover also in modern Bibles in Luke 22:7..

Luke 22:7 Then came the day of unleavened bread, when the passover must be killed. KJV

Luke 22:7 Then came ye daye of swete breed when of necessite the esterlambe must be offered. Tyndale's Bible

The added proof also is Wycliffe's Bible did not have Easter in the N.T. nor Passover in the O.T. but left the words untranslated in the Greek & in the Hebrew.

And regardless of the RC designating Easter Sunday to defer from the actual Jewish "Passover" in celebrating the Lord's resurrection on the first day of the week, in the month of Spring also known as the month of Easter & the month of Passover, the reason why Easter was used in the N.T. of Tyndale's Bible was in reference to the Jewish festivity that Tyndale had translated as Passover in the O.T.

Martin Luthor had translated the word in German a couple years earlier than Tyndale so although Wycliffe left it untranslated in English in Wycliffe's Bible, Martin Luthor had it translated in German before Tyndale did it in English.

Luke 22:1 Es war aber nahe das Fest der süßen Brote, das da Ostern heißt. Martin Luther's German Bible 1912

Luke 22:7 Es kam nun der Tag der süßen Brote, an welchem man mußte opfern das Osterlamm. Martin Luther's German Bible 1912

Note what Ostern means in English per Google Translate; Ostern as translated also mean Easter.

https://translate.google.com/?sl=auto&tl=en&text=Ostern&op=translate

Note how Martin Luthor differentiate the term of the day from the lamb offering also.

FYI; Martin Luther lived in Tyndale's times & had translated it as Easter but in German years earlier before Tyndale.

Whether or not Tyndale followed suit in according to Martin Luther does not change the fact that they both intended Easter to be in the same reference to the Jewish festivity as we call it as the Passover in the O.T. thanks to Tyndale, supposedly being the first to translated as Passover.. as far as we know.

Just note how they refer to the offering of the Passover as the Easterlamb in Luke 22:7 should be confirmation enough. In their understanding ... & intentions; Easter was meant as a reference to the Jewish Passover as we come to use regularly and know it today in the scripture.

It is our world today that has come to alienate the term Easter to not refer to the Jewish Passover as if it was never the same thing in scripture, but it was, so Easter does not always refer to the pagan Easter as they claimed it to be.

So iron has sharpened iron in regards to me, thanks to the Lord because I want to speak the truth in representing Him.

 

[Hark]

Now, Hark, care to try to defend the KJV's Rev. 16:5 word addition?

I did in post # 106. Here it is again.

Look it up yourself because I do not see anything wrong with that translation.

HTML Bible Index - King James Version - Strongs Concordance - Frames Version

If you scroll down on the left column to Revelation & click on # 16 in blue, it will bring up that page. Then scroll down to verse 5 and look for a string of broken up small Greek words that seem to be all joined in together in being defined by Strong's Concordance as saying "ho own kahee ho ane kahee ho er-khom'-en-os a phrase combining o - ho 3588 with the present participle and imperfect of eimi - eimi 1510 and the present participle of ercomai - erchomai 2064 by means of kai - kai 2532; the one being and the one that was and the one coming, i.e. the Eternal, as a divine epithet of Christ:--which art (is, was), and (which) wast (is, was), and art (is) to come (shalt be)."

 

[Hark]

Thanks. I rechecked that link. I must say I find their explanation confusing: That the English words "pass over" and "passover" make literal sense has no bearing on whether Tyndale would have been the first to translate and use the words that way in the Bible, so far as I can figure out.

However, I have done some more research on the word. If the transcribed Wycliffe versions at Biblegateway can be trusted for accuracy, the "Later Version" of the Wycliffe Bible (circa 1395, and possibly mostly the work of John Purvey) used Passover in Exodus 12:11. "And ye shall eat it thus; ye shall gird up your reins, and ye shall have shoes on your feet, and ye shall hold your staff in your hand, and ye shall eat it hastily; for it is the Passover, that is, the Passing Over of the Lord." It is found in over 40 other verses as well. The explanation in the "Easter and Reformation Era Bibles" link about it making literal sense doesn't make sense to me, as to the origins of the word. However, if John Purvey used it in his revision of Wycliffe's Bible over 100 years before Tyndale, then Tyndale certainly was not the one who coined it. Not sure how we could have missed this. I am keeping a bit of skepticism for now, and will hope to check this out further (something more original/closer to the source than a Biblegateway transcription, where it obviously has updated spelling).

Thanks for sharing your research.

@Conan seemed to confirm your suspicion that the information at Bible gateway was updated regarding the reading of Wycliffe's bible. I shall check on it too.

I do note that Bible Gateway had it as the sacrifice of the pask in Luke 22:7 in Wycliffe's Bible but I noticed the [ ] there..

Luke 22:1And the holiday of therf loaves, that is said pask, approached.... 7 But the days of therf loaves came, in which it was need, that the sacrifice of pask were slain [in which it was need, that pask, that is, the sacrifice of pask, be slain]. Wycliffe's Bible

But as for the claim of updated reference to Passover being used in Wycliffe's bible, I believe the clue that it is updated when it is in parenthesis ( ) at Bible Gateway at this link at Bible Gateway.

Leviticus 23:5-6;Numbers 28:16-17 KJV;WYC - In the fourteenth day of the first - Bible Gateway

When you compare the KJV with the Wycliffe's Bible, you can see the added parenthesis in regards to the Passover & in regards to the 7 days of the unleavened bread.

They did the same thing at this other site; using the updated version of Wycliffe's Bible

Leviticus 23:5-6; Numbers 28:16-17 - Wycliffe - WYC - Bible Study Tools

So unless we have some confirmation that the ( ) & the { } was added to Wycliffe's Bible by comparing it as Wycliffe's Bible originally was.. not sure we can find that online or not...Martin Luther & Tyndale both meant Easter to mean the Passover just as Easterlamb was referring to the sacrifice also called the Passover.

 

[robycop3]

Everyone.

Originally, I had believed at one KJV site that the KJV translators had it as Easter because of Passover is a specific day before the 7 days of the unleavened bread & they had reasoned because Herod was not a Jew, but seeking to please the Jews, they assumed the KJV translators was referring to King Herod's celebration of the pagans celebration of the pagan Easter.

Then I had learned that unleavened bread is also eaten on the day of the Passover on the 14th ( Leviticus 23:5 & Numbers 28:16 ) but the designation of the 7 days of unleavened bread was that festivity that starts on the 15th ( Leviticus 23:6 & Numbers 28:17 ) when only unleavened bread can be eaten following the day of the Passover on the 14th. So it explained why Luke 22:1 & Luke 22:7 as Passover referred to the first day of the unleavened bread because they were supposed to eat only unleavened bread on that day too, but with the Passover lamb on the 14th, but the 7 days of the unleavened bread started on the 15th. So in Jewish tradition as far as the Passover goes, it was also known as the first day of the unleavened bread only because that was when they are commanded to start eating unleavened bread with the Passover, but the actual day as designated the 7 days of the only eating unleavened bread starts on the 15th.

But I have learned that the KJV site was making an assumption about why the KJV translators had it as Easter in Acts 12:4 in regards to the pagan King Herod waiting after celebrating the pagan Easter & not just referring to the Jewish festivity held in that time of month of Spring, BECAUSE Tyndale had it as Easter in the N.T. in Tyndale's Bible to refer to the same Jewish festivity as he had translated Passover in English for the first time for the O.T. in Tyndale's bible which came before the KJV Bible

Now the false charge of Tyndale not having time to translate Easter to Passover in the N.T. by anti-KJVers is obvious because Wycliffe's Bible which was before Tyndale's Bible left pascha in the Greek untranslated as he did for pesach in the Hebrew in the O.T. Therefore Tyndale coined the phrase Easter first for the English Bible as far as we know.

That meant that Tyndale meant Easter to represent the Jewish Passover of pesach in the O.T. the same as pasach the N.T.

So regardless of why the KJV left it as Easter or the charge that a prelate had changed it in Acts 12:4 from Passover back to Easter at the KJV translators' protests, Tyndale meant for Easter in the N.T. as a reference the Jewish Passover in the O.T. and proof of that goes to how Tyndale used "esterlambe" in Luke 22:7 of the Tyndale's Bible to define the offering from the day of the Passover which is now defined as Passover also in modern Bibles in Luke 22:7..

Luke 22:7 Then came the day of unleavened bread, when the passover must be killed. KJV

Luke 22:7 Then came ye daye of swete breed when of necessite the esterlambe must be offered. Tyndale's Bible

The added proof also is Wycliffe's Bible did not have Easter in the N.T. nor Passover in the O.T. but left the words untranslated in the Greek & in the Hebrew.

And regardless of the RC designating Easter Sunday to defer from the actual Jewish "Passover" in celebrating the Lord's resurrection on the first day of the week, in the month of Spring also known as the month of Easter & the month of Passover, the reason why Easter was used in the N.T. of Tyndale's Bible was in reference to the Jewish festivity that Tyndale had translated as Passover in the O.T.

Martin Luthor had translated the word in German a couple years earlier than Tyndale so although Wycliffe left it untranslated in English in Wycliffe's Bible, Martin Luthor had it translated in German before Tyndale did it in English.

Luke 22:1 Es war aber nahe das Fest der süßen Brote, das da Ostern heißt. Martin Luther's German Bible 1912

Luke 22:7 Es kam nun der Tag der süßen Brote, an welchem man mußte opfern das Osterlamm. Martin Luther's German Bible 1912

Note what Ostern means in English per Google Translate; Ostern as translated also mean Easter.

https://translate.google.com/?sl=auto&tl=en&text=Ostern&op=translate

Note how Martin Luthor differentiate the term of the day from the lamb offering also.

FYI; Martin Luther lived in Tyndale's times & had translated it as Easter but in German years earlier before Tyndale.

Whether or not Tyndale followed suit in according to Martin Luther does not change the fact that they both intended Easter to be in the same reference to the Jewish festivity as we call it as the Passover in the O.T. thanks to Tyndale, supposedly being the first to translated as Passover.. as far as we know.

Just note how they refer to the offering of the Passover as the Easterlamb in Luke 22:7 should be confirmation enough. In their understanding ... & intentions; Easter was meant as a reference to the Jewish Passover as we come to use regularly and know it today in the scripture.

It is our world today that has come to alienate the term Easter to not refer to the Jewish Passover as if it was never the same thing in scripture, but it was, so Easter does not always refer to the pagan Easter as they claimed it to be.

So iron has sharpened iron in regards to me, thanks to the Lord because I want to speak the truth in representing Him.

From your own KJV-Eze. 45:21 In the first month, in the fourteenth day of the month, ye shall have the passover, a feast of seven days; unleavened bread shall be eaten.
GOD HIMSELF established passover as 7 days. And, again from your own KJV, is more proof of that-John 18:28 Then led they Jesus from Caiaphas unto the hall of judgment: and it was early; and they themselves went not into the judgment hall, lest they should be defiled; but that they might eat the passover.
Now, we know the paschal lambs had been eaten the previous eve, so this could only be referring to the following days. So, passover was plainly going on during the events of Acts 12.

 

[robycop3]

I did in post # 106. Here it is again.

Look it up yourself because I do not see anything wrong with that translation.

HTML Bible Index - King James Version - Strongs Concordance - Frames Version

If you scroll down on the left column to Revelation & click on # 16 in blue, it will bring up that page. Then scroll down to verse 5 and look for a string of broken up small Greek words that seem to be all joined in together in being defined by Strong's Concordance as saying "ho own kahee ho ane kahee ho er-khom'-en-os a phrase combining o - ho 3588 with the present participle and imperfect of eimi - eimi 1510 and the present participle of ercomai - erchomai 2064 by means of kai - kai 2532; the one being and the one that was and the one coming, i.e. the Eternal, as a divine epithet of Christ:--which art (is, was), and (which) wast (is, was), and art (is) to come (shalt be)."

Most newer versions don't include "and shall be". The NKJV does, but it largely follows the KJV.
Why?
Because those words are NOT found in ANY known ancient Scriptural ms. in that verse of Revelation. The AV men used "conjectural emendation" to add those words.

Although "and shalt be" is true, it's an ADDITION to God's words in that verse.

 

[Hark]

From your own KJV-Eze. 45:21 In the first month, in the fourteenth day of the month, ye shall have the passover, a feast of seven days; unleavened bread shall be eaten.
GOD HIMSELF established passover as 7 days. And, again from your own KJV, is more proof of that-John 18:28 Then led they Jesus from Caiaphas unto the hall of judgment: and it was early; and they themselves went not into the judgment hall, lest they should be defiled; but that they might eat the passover.
Now, we know the paschal lambs had been eaten the previous eve, so this could only be referring to the following days. So, passover was plainly going on during the events of Acts 12.

In light of Leviticus 23:5-6 & Numbers 28:16-17, I read Ezekiel 45:21 the same way in spite of that comma separates Passover from the 7 days of the unleavened bread.

Leviticus 23:5 In the fourteenth day of the first month at even is the Lord's passover. 6 And on the fifteenth day of the same month is the feast of unleavened bread unto the Lord: seven days ye must eat unleavened bread. KJV

Numbers 28:16 And in the fourteenth day of the first month is the passover of the Lord. 17 And in the fifteenth day of this month is the feast: seven days shall unleavened bread be eaten. KJV

 

[Hark]

Most newer versions don't include "and shall be". The NKJV does, but it largely follows the KJV.
Why?
Because those words are NOT found in ANY known ancient Scriptural ms. in that verse of Revelation. The AV men used "conjectural emendation" to add those words.

Although "and shalt be" is true, it's an ADDITION to God's words in that verse.

Not when it can be translated as such from the Greek to English, it is not.

 

[rlvaughn]

Confirmed, Bible Gateway has the not real Terence Noble edition. It’s not really a Wycliffe edition. William Tyndale did coin the word Passover.

Thanks. I was suspicious that the word "Passover" was a new insert,. The information given in the "about" section does not make clear how much fiddling was done beyond updating spelling, etc. Glad you are familiar with the Terence Noble work so you can clarify this. I am still interested in finding a real 1395 John Purvey revision of Wycliffe's translation to see what he had in those places.

Online Etymology Dictionary says "coined by Tyndale from verbal phrase pass over, to translate Hebrew ha-pesah 'Passover,' from pesah (see paschal), in reference to the Lord 'passing over' the houses of the Israelites in Egypt when he killed the first-born of the Egyptians (Exodus xii)."

 

[robycop3]

In light of Leviticus 23:5-6 & Numbers 28:16-17, I read Ezekiel 45:21 the same way in spite of that comma separates Passover from the 7 days of the unleavened bread.

Leviticus 23:5 In the fourteenth day of the first month at even is the Lord's passover. 6 And on the fifteenth day of the same month is the feast of unleavened bread unto the Lord: seven days ye must eat unleavened bread. KJV

Numbers 28:16 And in the fourteenth day of the first month is the passover of the Lord. 17 And in the fifteenth day of this month is the feast: seven days shall unleavened bread be eaten. KJV

How about John 18:28?

 

[robycop3]

Not when it can be translated as such from the Greek to English, it is not.

But something that's not there can't be translated. The makers of newer Bible versions are pro translators, & they don't add those words because they're not present in the Greek.

 

[rlvaughn]

Found what purports to be 1382 Wycliffe and 1395 Wycliffe-Purvey HERE and HERE. They are transcriptions, but definitely have the original spellings. Really not sure if the second is supposed to be the Purvey edition, or if they just included a preface that talks about it. (A very brief check I made did not reveal obvious differences.)

 

[Hark]

How about John 18:28?

Not sure what you mean for me to address?

John 18:28 Then led they Jesus from Caiaphas unto the hall of judgment: and it was early; and they themselves went not into the judgment hall, lest they should be defiled; but that they might eat the passover. KJV

John 18:28 Then the Jewish leaders took Jesus from Caiaphas to the palace of the Roman governor. By now it was early morning, and to avoid ceremonial uncleanness they did not enter the palace, because they wanted to be able to eat the Passover. NIV

If I am understanding this correctly with His help, His accusers would be defiled & be unable to eat the pasach or "Passover" since anyone being defiled would have to undergo a purification ritual before continuing & that could interrupt them performing the designated 7 days of unleavened bread that followed the Passover day.

Since we know that Jesus had the Passover lamb on the day of the Passover ( The Last Supper ) & was arrested on the end of the Passover day at sunset, as a Jewish day starts at sunset & ends at sunset, and He was arrested in the evening of the next day on the designated 1st day of the 7 days of unleavened bread, it was not the Passover lamb that was to be eaten but the unleavened bread that pasach was referring to in John 18:28.

So John 18:28 is in the same way as modern Bibles had translated pasach as Passover in Acts 12:4 to mean in regards to being done after the 7 days of unleavened bread & not after the actual day of Passover on the 14th, but yet identifying the 7 days of unleavened bread with pasach or Passover also.

Passover does includes the 7 days of unleavened bread festivity as Passover with the Passover Day of the 14th when they can only eat the Passover lamb with unleavened bread that 14th day.

The Greek pasach & the Hebrew pesach or p'sach as meaning Passover in modern Bibles has different usage in scripture now like hell does. So you have to take John 18:28 of the KJV & modern Bibles to mean what modern Bibles has for Acts 12:4

Next time, when you ask a question regarding a scripture reference, ask what it is you are asking me about because I had to guess what your contention was. If that be it, your contention is null & void. Otherwise, please state your contention about John 18:28 because I do not see anything added that defers from the message that other modern Bibles has.

 

[Hark]

But something that's not there can't be translated. The makers of newer Bible versions are pro translators, & they don't add those words because they're not present in the Greek.

But it is there. "o wn kai o hn kai o osioV " "ho own kahee ho ane kahee ho er-khom'-en-os a phrase combining o - ho 3588 with the present participle and imperfect of eimi - eimi 1510 and the present participle of ercomai - erchomai 2064 by means of kai - kai 2532; the one being and the one that was and the one coming, i.e. the Eternal, as a divine epithet of Christ:--which art (is, was), and (which) wast (is, was), and art (is) to come (shalt be)."

Strong's Concordance.

Pro translators are educated by a tainted educational system that do not consider how words were translated by Tyndale & Luther in the past to mean like Easter in the N.T. was to Passover in the O.T. Let's face it, antiKJVOnlyism can prejudiced anyone who go through the educational system.

More proof? In the Liberty Annotated Study Bible ( KJV ) 1988 Edition, the footnote has hippo or crocodile for behemoth in John 40:15-24 when behemoth is being described as a dinosaur when his tail is like a cedar which is a tree. Edited for more clarity; To locate the information, be it considered a commentary or as a footnote, it is on page 853 at the bottom, not the scriptural reference in that Bible on page 854 in the middle margin where the actual Job 40:17 in scripture is located.

Some modern Bibles deem it as hippo or an elephant in their footnotes.

Plus, only recently science discovered that the sex organs of dinosaurs are internal but in Job 40:17 in the same verse about his tail, the Bible knew that before science did ! Job 40:17 He moveth his tail like a cedar: the sinews of his stones are wrapped together. KJV

The next time you put confidence in men of degrees, rely on the Holy Spirit in you, instead to teach you to prove everything with Jesus Christ, trusting your Good Shepherd to do it through the Holy Spirit in you..

1 John 2:27 But the anointing which ye have received of him abideth in you, and ye need not that any man teach you: but as the same anointing teacheth you of all things, and is truth, and is no lie, and even as it hath taught you, ye shall abide in him. KJV

James 1:5 If any of you lack wisdom, let him ask of God, that giveth to all men liberally, and upbraideth not; and it shall be given him. KJV

1 Thessalonians 5:21 Prove all things; hold fast that which is good. 22 Abstain from all appearance of evil. 23 And the very God of peace sanctify you wholly; and I pray God your whole spirit and soul and body be preserved blameless unto the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ. 24 Faithful is he that calleth you, who also will do it. ~ KJV

As it is, I do not accept all the claims that is supposedly KJVOnlyism. Thanks to Jesus Christ, He has med me to rely only on the KJV for the meat of His words to discern good & evil by, even new false footnotes that has crept into KJV Bibles !

 

[Logos1560]

More proof? In the Liberty Annotated Study Bible ( KJV ) 1988 Edition, the footnote has hippo or crocodile for behemoth in John 40:15-24 when behemoth is being described as a dinosaur when his tail is like a cedar which is a tree.

Is that note worse than the marginal note of the KJV translators themselves for Behemoth at Job 40:15 that states "Or, the Elephant, as some think"?

 

[Conan]

Most newer versions don't include "and shall be". The NKJV does, but it largely follows the KJV.
Why?
Because those words are NOT found in ANY known ancient Scriptural ms. in that verse of Revelation. The AV men used "conjectural emendation" to add those words.

Although "and shalt be" is true, it's an ADDITION to God's words in that verse.

Wasn’t it Beza’s conjectural emendation in his Greek Text?

 

[robycop3]

Not sure what you mean for me to address?

John 18:28 Then led they Jesus from Caiaphas unto the hall of judgment: and it was early; and they themselves went not into the judgment hall, lest they should be defiled; but that they might eat the passover. KJV

John 18:28 Then the Jewish leaders took Jesus from Caiaphas to the palace of the Roman governor. By now it was early morning, and to avoid ceremonial uncleanness they did not enter the palace, because they wanted to be able to eat the Passover. NIV

If I am understanding this correctly with His help, His accusers would be defiled & be unable to eat the pasach or "Passover" since anyone being defiled would have to undergo a purification ritual before continuing & that could interrupt them performing the designated 7 days of unleavened bread that followed the Passover day.

Since we know that Jesus had the Passover lamb on the day of the Passover ( The Last Supper ) & was arrested on the end of the Passover day at sunset, as a Jewish day starts at sunset & ends at sunset, and He was arrested in the evening of the next day on the designated 1st day of the 7 days of unleavened bread, it was not the Passover lamb that was to be eaten but the unleavened bread that pasach was referring to in John 18:28.

So John 18:28 is in the same way as modern Bibles had translated pasach as Passover in Acts 12:4 to mean in regards to being done after the 7 days of unleavened bread & not after the actual day of Passover on the 14th, but yet identifying the 7 days of unleavened bread with pasach or Passover also.

Passover does includes the 7 days of unleavened bread festivity as Passover with the Passover Day of the 14th when they can only eat the Passover lamb with unleavened bread that 14th day.

The Greek pasach & the Hebrew pesach or p'sach as meaning Passover in modern Bibles has different usage in scripture now like hell does. So you have to take John 18:28 of the KJV & modern Bibles to mean what modern Bibles has for Acts 12:4

Next time, when you ask a question regarding a scripture reference, ask what it is you are asking me about because I had to guess what your contention was. If that be it, your contention is null & void. Otherwise, please state your contention about John 18:28 because I do not see anything added that defers from the message that other modern Bibles has.

The fact that this verse proves passover is 7 days long & includes the days of unleavened bread. Thus passover was ongoing when Herod busted Peter. Nothing to do with Easter, as it didn't then exist.

When the event of that verse occurred, the paschal lambs had already been eaten, so it proved passover didn't end with the conclusion of that meal. Had they become defiled, those Jews couldn't've eaten the special unleavened meals prepared during Passover Week, & they were forbidden to have eaten anything else during that week. So, they'd've been some hungry pups!