Please show me where in the Constitution of the USA that a person is given the right to vote.
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Tea Party founder - restrict voting rights to property owners
- Thread starter Matt Black
- Start date
Please show me where in the Constitution of the USA that a person is given the right to vote.
FR7 Baptist
Active Member
You hit the nail on the head. Qualifications to vote are a State issue, not a Federal one except for constitutional restrictions that state that a State may not abridge the right to vote for certain reasons.
Steven2006
New Member
I believe applying any kind of financial litmus test on citizens in order to have the right to vote would be very dangerous for the country.
from the link said:
The underlined portion of this statement is what I find offensive.
Yes, I am a property owner. I own my home (paid for the whole thing myself), I pay property taxes on the acreage that I own, and I will inherit a substantial bit of property one day.
But to say that THIS is what solely makes me have a vested interest in my community is hogwash.
And to say that non-property owners don't count because they AREN'T vested in their communities is stupid.
I don't know what else to say except that it is stupid.
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Steven2006
New Member
That line of thinking is not only ignorant but dangerous. Slippery slope, which could one day very well lead to a person having to have a certain net worth in order to vote. Because of course they would have a "more vested interest".
her rights - if you mean being on welfare - NO, a great big no. First it is not a right. Second, she is living her lifestyle on MY DIME (taxes)
So your example of flying a flag is totally irrelevant, as there is no extra cost to you.
May I take this to the next step Here in NY, NYC has approximately 1/2 of the state assembly - due to population. However, NYC only has less than 1% of all land in NY State. So 1% is able to tell the other 99% what they can and can not do. Is that fair.
Salty
ps, If I misinterpreted your post - that I quoted - I apologize - but I would say my point is well taken anyways. ( I got in this discussion late )
Precisely.
If the vested interest in a community is calculated on property ownership alone, then it only stands to reason that the cotton farmer who owns 10,000 acres has a more vested interest than the home-owner who only has 1.5 acres.
And Donald Trump would have a more vested interest in his communit(ies) than the cotton farmer.
The more the acreage - the more voice in government.
poncho
Well-Known Member
Privileged land owners? You mean like an aristocracy? In the USA?
I thought all that was settled when Cornwallis surrendered.
Thomas Jefferson said "equal rights for all, special privileges for none".
Lord Trump? C'mon now.
I think even the poorest serf should be allowed to vote.
I thought all that was settled when Cornwallis surrendered.
Thomas Jefferson said "equal rights for all, special privileges for none".
Lord Trump? C'mon now.
I think even the poorest serf should be allowed to vote.
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Ditto......
Sure: The Nineteenth Amendment (Amendment XIX) to the United States Constitution prohibits each state and the federal government from denying any citizen the right to vote based on that citizen's sex. It was ratified on August 18, 1920.
But I thought you were not going to talk to me anymore. Of course, Im cut from a different cloth.
Real estate markets pretty tough these days. good luck if your considering selling.
I wasn't going to talk to you any longer, but then I saw this gross error and had to point it out.
What you just quoted does not give anyone the right to vote. It simply spells out a reason that government can't use to deny someone.
As Paul has already told us, there is nothing in the Constitution that gives a right to vote.
Just curious why did you only mention that one - how about the one guaranteeing the right to vote to without regard to race or age?
and by the way, the US constitution never forbid women to vote, but not until the 20th century,as you stated, it was guaranteed.
I must point out again that the Constitution does not guarantee that women can vote. It simply states that a person can't be denied voting simply because they are a woman. A woman can be denied voting for a multitude of reasons, as long as the same reasons apply to a man.
sorry but she does have rights as a US Citizen irregardless if she is on welfare, on the street, in Buffalo etc. Thats the law of the land. The only way I can think of for a person to loose those rights is to become a Felon .....but Im not a lawyer so dont do anything foolhardy on my account. :smilewinkgrin:
poncho
Well-Known Member
The right to vote is the foundation of any democracy. Yet most Americans do not realize that we do not have a constitutionally protected right to vote. While there are amendments to the U.S. Constitution that prohibit discrimination based on race (15th), sex (19th) and age (26th), no affirmative right to vote exists.
The 2000 Presidential Election was the first time many Americans realized the necessity of a constitutional right to vote. The majority of the U.S. Supreme Court, in Bush v. Gore (2000), wrote, "The individual citizen has no federal constitutional right to vote for electors for the President of the United States." The U.S. is one of only 11 other democracies in the world with no affirmative right to vote enshrined in its constitution.
Because there is no right to vote in the U.S. Constitution, individual states set their own electoral policies and procedures. This leads to confusing and sometimes contradictory policies regarding ballot design, polling hours, voting equipment, voter registration requirements, and ex-felon voting rights. As a result, our electoral system is divided into 50 states, more than 3,000 counties and approximately 13,000 voting districts, all separate and unequal.
SOURCE
The 2000 Presidential Election was the first time many Americans realized the necessity of a constitutional right to vote. The majority of the U.S. Supreme Court, in Bush v. Gore (2000), wrote, "The individual citizen has no federal constitutional right to vote for electors for the President of the United States." The U.S. is one of only 11 other democracies in the world with no affirmative right to vote enshrined in its constitution.
Because there is no right to vote in the U.S. Constitution, individual states set their own electoral policies and procedures. This leads to confusing and sometimes contradictory policies regarding ballot design, polling hours, voting equipment, voter registration requirements, and ex-felon voting rights. As a result, our electoral system is divided into 50 states, more than 3,000 counties and approximately 13,000 voting districts, all separate and unequal.
SOURCE
Thats a fair assessment....Im not a constitutional lawyer but I did stay at a Holiday Inn last night....LOL
Again, your characterizations are libelous. Regardless, certain groups are always excluded. There are qualifications for office, even if it's the office of voter.
OK, so I stand corrected. My point though & Im sure you will agree is that every citizen does have rights, far superior than most of our neighbors & they can be exercised thru our judicial system if need be. Thank God we live in a country where this is so.