"The details" in 11-16 do not allow for the idea that Romans 6 says nothing about the outward actions of the saved.
You CAN look at vs 17-23 and say "hey look nothing said here about  outward actions so maybe they are not mentioned in the chapter" - but we  both know that does not work.
	
		
	
	
		
		
			Bob, this is it, I am not going to keep arguing with you. Verses 17-18 refutes your concept of verses 15 and 16;
Rom 6:17 But God be thanked, that ye were the servants of sin, but ye have obeyed from the heart that form of doctrine which was delivered you.
18 Being then made free from sin, ye became the servants of righteousness.
Verse 17 explains what Paul meant by "yielding to obedience to righteousness". He is not saying that a person has to live a sinless life
		
		
	 
1. I never claim that the person in the good scenario in vs 7-16 has to live a sinless life. You keep making that up and providing no quote at all from me stating such a thing. Am I not supposed to "notice"? 
In any case that is not a "detail" in vs 17 refuting any position I have actually taken - only a straw-man you are proposing. But I never thought your straw man was valid to start with -  you don't need  vs 17 for that.
2. The "problem"  you have with vs 7-16 is NOT with the one who is "obeying" not even "obeying from the heart" the heart burn you are having is with vs 16 regarding the one who does NOT obey.
3.  vs 17 does not say "the 
one who obeys sin - is still obeying from the heart". This is the missing verse 17 that I think you may  be looking for.
Vs 17-18 also does not say "the one who obeys sin - is not a servant of sin - because in fact they are obeying from the heart" -- you believe it apparently - but you don't have anything that actually says it.
4. "Servants of Righteouseness" is a phrase already defined in Romans 6.
It is in the very part of the chapter you are most hoping to avoid.
But vs 18 does not say "even if we obey sin we are still servants of righteousness" --again this would be the missing vs 18 that I think you might be looking for - it would refute vs 7-16 if it existed -- so I understand why you keep wanting to find it.
	
		
			
				Winman said:
			
		
	
	
		
		
			No, Paul is saying that after this one time event of believing the gospel, these persons have been made free of sin and are now the servants of righteousness.
		
		
	 
But only if they are complying with the information already given in the chapter (so that is "context"). And the context has Paul defining the fact that the save (the one under grace) is only remaining as the servant of righteousness IF they are obeying God's Word rather than living in rebellion against it.
vs 17-18 are in perfect harmony with vs 11-16 as it turns out.
Paul explicitly deals with the SAVED person UNDER grace - when HE says --
15 What then? 
Shall we sin because we are not under law but under grace? May it never be! 
16 
Do you not know that 
when you present yourselves to someone as slaves for obedience, you are slaves of the one whom you obey, either of sin resulting in death, or of obedience resulting in righteousness?
Vs 17-18 do NOT say "only those who are NOT UNDER GRACE are servants of sin IF they choose to obey sin -- those UNDER GRACE are not servants of sin regardless if they choose to obey sin or not".
In any case - I am not even trying to refute OSAS on this thread - I only quoted Romans 6 to point out that the saints are supposed to respect obedience and to avoid sin - which is "defined" by God as "transgression of the LAW" 1John 3:4.
You are making this a debate about OSAS - because you know that vs 7-16 is a problem for OSAS "as it reads" even if it is just quoted to speak about the saints respecting the Law of God vs rebellion against God's Law "sin is transgression of the Law".
in Christ,
Bob