Textus Receptus vs. the Majority Text?

[Thirsty1]

Hello,

As a layman, I am trying to understand the origins our Holy Scriptures better. I was wondering if someone could explain the difference between the Textus Receptus and the Majority Text - and if there is strong arguments in support of one over the other as the true source of inspired scripture?

 

[Conan]

Hello,

As a layman, I am trying to understand the origins our Holy Scriptures better. I was wondering if someone could explain the difference between the Textus Receptus and the Majority Text - and if there is strong arguments in support of one over the other as the true source of inspired scripture?

They are related and virtual the same. The Textus Receptus was made from Byzantine Manuscripts. The Majority Text is the Text that is in the majority of all manuscripts. Exception is in the Book of Revelation and the passage about the Woman in John 8 where there is no clear majority. Here is a list of 1000 translatable differences. The TR and Byzantine Text are of the Same Family and Text Type. They are the most accurate Texts in my opinion. Both of them. They both represent true Scripture.

The Majority Text Compared to the Received Text

 

[37818]

Video about 4 minutes

@Conan post #2 gives details.

 

[Martin Marprelate]

The Received Text and the Majority Text are in substantial agreement with one another, except, as has been said, in the Book of Revelation.
However, thereare a few other differences: most famously the so-called 'Johannine Comma' - 1 John 5:7-8, which survives in only a tiny number of Greek manuscripts - and also Acts 8:37.
The story of the woman taken in adultery (John 7:53-8:11), although it is missing in over 100 Greek manuscripts, including most of the early ones, is found in more than 900 MSS of John, so the Received and Majority texts agree there.