Who is us?
There are two people in this discussion, you and I.
There are others reading this thread and you have already had a response by one who explicitly told you he did not agree with your position. So lets be honest, ok?
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Who is us?
There are two people in this discussion, you and I.
There was no NATIONAL salvation before or after Pentecost (not until Christ returns).
There are others reading this thread and you have already had a response by one who explicitly told you he did not agree with your position. So lets be honest, ok?
You have no salvation for anyone prior to Pentecost, none at all! Your salvation simply does not exist prior to Pentecost and can't exist.
Salvation is an empty word, a meaningless word prior to Pentecost by your position. The gospel is empty and meaningless prior to Pentocost according to your savlation!
Think not? Then answer me this, what PRACTICAL application of salvation from the problem of (1) sin or (2) spiritual separation does your pre-cross "salvation" or "good news" gospel have for anyone in any practical application prior to Pentecost?
1. What actual solution for their SIN NATURE does your gospel or salvation actually have to offer ON A DAILY AND INDIVIDUAL BASIS????
2. What actual solution for spiritual separation from God, from light, from life, from holiness from the fruit of the indwelling spirit (joy, peace, faith, longsuffering, etc.) do you have to apply to their personal condition?
3. What actual "justification" does your gospel offer prior to Pentecost? Does it actually remit any of their sins? Does it actually provide any righteousness outside of and apart and thus "WITHOUT WORKS"???
4. How does your pre-cross salvation actually deal with their sin nature, their depravity, their inability to understand spiritual things (without light) their separation from God (without life) their practical daily sanctification or ability to live a daily life for God that pleases him while being SPIRITUALLY SEPARATED from Him, without Him, without His life, without His light, without His righteousness, without his characteristic fruit? Where do they obtain such things if not from God in their SEPARATED STATE from God?
Yours is an EMPTY promise without any DAILY and PERSONAL application to meet their problem of sin and spiritual separation from God and all that characterizes a relationship with God - fellowship, friendship, etc.
Tell us how a person WITHOUT GOD, without the life of God, without the light of God, without the holiness of God can daily live a life pleasing to God? Tell us how a person without the Spirit actually indwellling them can have power over indwelling sin when post-pentecost Christians have no such power over sin in and of themselves even with a regenerated inward man? Tell us?
Tell us how a human being VOID OF GOD can produce Godliness in their daily life? Tell us, how any sinner existing in a state of spiritual separation from God can be justified before God IN THEIR OWN LIFE TIME before the cross according to your theory? Tell us?
If pre-pentecost can acheive a daily life pleasing to God without God, without regeneration, without indwelling, then pray tell us why do we even need God, or regeneration or indwelling today if it can be achieved by sinful man without such at any time in history?
Again, the principle of the Filling of the Holy Ghost traces it's course throughout Scripture.;/QUOTE]
Not even regenerated people are always "filled" with God the Spirit. To be "filled" with the Spirit is to enter into the most intimate relationship with God possible for man. To be "filled" with the Spirit is to HAVE GOD in the most intimate sense possible.
We are talking about those who are WITHOUT GOD! You can't have your cake and eat it too! Either they are WITHOUT God or they HAVE GOD there is no third position!
God does not fill unregenerate people at any time. He empowers unregenerate persons, like Cyrus to do his bidding, but he does not "fill" them. Apparently you don't understand what being "filled' with the Holy Spirit means. It means you are willingly acting under his control for the glory of God. Those WITHOUT GOD cannot be "filled" by God's Spirit because, duh, they are "WITHOUT GOD" and the HOly Spirit is God. You can't have your cake and eat it too! Either they are WITHOUT GOD or they have God, to be "filled" by the Spirit of God is to HAVE GOD in the most initimate way possible.
But just as a born again believer in this Age can have the Spirit of God which is the Eternal Indwelling which became available through the Work of Christ, even so the Old Testament Saint could be filled apart from the Eternal Indwelling.
It is impossible to be "filled" with water and not have water INDWELLING YOU and it is just as impossible to be "filled" with the Spirit and not have the Spirit INDWELLING YOU. Your reasoning is as irrational as it is unbiblical.
Not one Old Testament Saint did the first work of obedience which evidenced their faith in God..apart from the Ministry of the Holy Ghost.
Make up your mind, either they are WITHOUT GOD or they are WITH GOD? One cannot have the "fruit of the Spirit" without the Holy Spirit WITHIN them because that is where the fruit of the Spirit MUST originate before it can be manifested THROUGH them into their outward life.
That does not equate to the doctrine you teach, that the Ministry of the Holy Ghost is identical between the Ages.
You are broadcasting your complete ignorance of salvation at its most basic level. If sin and spiritual separation is not being resolved INSIDE a sinner it is not being resolved at all. That is the most basic level of salvation - resolution of the sin problem WITHIN the sinner.
It does not equate to remission of sins is equable.
Paul begs to differ with you with regard to both Abraham (not under law) and David (under law) - Rom. 4:5-11.
Peter begs to differ with you with regard to all Old Testament prophets and all of those who believed in the gospel they preached - Acts 10:43
It does not negate Christ's teachings that He came to bestow eternal life through His Death.[/:QUOTE]
Paul begs to differ with you - 1 Cor. 15:4-5 "according to the Scriptures"
Paul begs to differ with you - Acts 26:22-23 "none other things....rise from the dead"
Isaiah begs to differ with you - Isa. 53
Biblicist...this is how we are saved in this Age.
This very admission necessarily infers a different salvation for any other age or you could not use this language "in this age." Start being honest and admit you believe in two different kinds of salvation, one for their age and another for this age. However, before Pentecost there is no other way but ONE - Mt. 7:13-14 and no other Savior but ONE - Jn. 14:6 or any man in any age and no other gospel but one - Gal. 1:8-9 as all other gospels are accursed and this same gospel was preached to them as well as unto us - Heb. 4:2. The "mystery" of the Gospel had nothing to with the sufficiency of the gospel in any age to save. The "mystery" of the gospel had to do with the change of ethnic focus of redemption from Jews to Gentiels (Eph. 3:1-5). The "mystery" of the gospel had to with identifying the specific means of death (the cross) but not with the fact of his death declared in every sacrifice since the foundation of the world (Heb. 13:20; Rev. 13:8).
The sinner, existing in a state of spiritual separation from God...is justified before God in their own lifetime.
The Old Testament Saint was justified the very same way: by responding to the enlightening ministry of the Holy Ghost.
But that does not make the provision identical.
Abraham is set forth as the role model for "ALL WHO ARE OF FAITH" with regard to justification and Paul explicitly tells you that it includes imputed righteousness and remission of sins or can't you read Romans 4:5-8???????? He explicitly introduces this example by explicitly telling you this justification was by faith IN CHRIST or can't you read Romans 3:24-26 and Romans 4:22-25.
Grant it, that the PROVISION occurred in the life of Christ, but even you admit the PROMISE occurred in their own life time and the application was received in their own lifetime because the Bible says they were JUSTIFIED not SHALL BE justified (Rom. 4:9-11, 5:1-2). There is no justification from sin outside of Christ for anyone at anytime. There is no remission of sin for anyone at anytime outside of Christ (ACts 10:43). Now either they were justified based on the provision or they were not and the Bible says they were.
.The Old Testament Saint was justified through faith, but his sin was not remitted on an eternal basis. He was not made perfect. That is why the provision of the Priest of those Ages was continual, because it could not take away sins.
Neither have we yet been made "perfect" (Heb. 11:39-40) and no sinner has yet to be made "perfect" until Christ returns. They were perfect "positionally" by faith in Christ (Gal. 3:17; Eph. 1:4; Heb. 13:20 "everlasting covenant") and did receive FULL remission of sins to the extent that Old Testament prophets could declare that their sins had been removed from them as far as the East is from the West and that God remembered them no more. David rejoiced that all of his sins had been remitted forever (Rom. 4:6-8).
You don't get the basics of salvation. There is no salvation of any kind where there is no dealing with sin and spiritual separation WITHIN the individual - this is salvation at its most basic level of understanding and you have no clue!
Your doctrine leads to some very un-biblical conclusions, one which is prominent is that Abel (and all Old Testament Saints) was saved because he obeyed God and offered up animal sacrifice.
Where have I ever said such? Quote it or stop making this accusation. The fact is that I have said repeatedly about Hebrews 11:4 the very exact opposite and every reader on this forum knows that. He was saved by faith in the gospel, meaning he was justified, meaning his sins were fully and eternally remittted and the righteousness of Christ was imputed to him by faith, thus justified by faith BEFORE he offered up that sacrifice as the sacrifice only SYMBOLICALLY DECLARED he was ALREADY righteous before God by faith, by justification by faith. READ IT, it tells you clearly that the sacrifice only provided a WITNESS he was already rightous.
You are not understanding Christ's teaching, Biblicist. He distinguishes between the life provided to the Children of Israel in the Wilderness with the Life that the True Bread would provide, which He makes absolutely clear refers to His Death.
Tell me, what is difficult to understand that PHYSICAL MANNA sustains only PHYSICAL life? Spiritual manna sustains spiritual life? They died in the wilderness because the manna they ate was not designed or given to provide spiritual life, eternal life, or anything other than PHYSICAL life.
However, Paul tells you the reason they did not obtain spiritual life is because they rejected the gospel,, the same gospel preached unto us or can't you read Hebrew 4:2?
That gospel preached unto them "as well as unto us" is the SPIRITUAL MANNA that the children of wilderness rejected by unbelief in the gospel just as the nation of Israel rejected when that same gospel became PERSONIFIED in the incarnate person of Jesus of Nazareth
John 14:15-18.
King James Version (KJV)
15 If ye love me, keep my commandments.
16 And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another Comforter, that he may abide with you for ever;
17 Even the Spirit of truth; whom the world cannot receive, because it seeth him not, neither knoweth him: but ye know him; for he dwelleth with you, and shall be in you.
18 I will not leave you comfortless: I will come to you.
I have addressed and answered every question you have posed in this post, now return the favor and answer these:
1. What is the difference between the Comforter abiding with them forever and their current state at the time of this teaching?Answered above. However, I will repeat it just for you. He indwelt them as individual temples of the Spirit - their physical bodies as taught clearly in 1 Cor. 6:19 but it was not until Pentecost he indwelt the institutional church as "the temple" of the Holy Spirit as taught clearly in Acts 2:1,40,46 and 1 Cor. 3:10-16).
2. Is Christ dwelling in them at this time?
The SPIRIT of Christ indwelt them at this time individually. They were chosen "in him" before the world began (Eph. 1:4) as were all "elect" including the nation of Israel that is yet to be saved as a nation (Rom. 11:25-32).
3. Is the Comforter, the Spirit of Truth...already in the world?
He has always been in the world with regard to personal individiual indwelling and all the characteristics of the term translated "comforter" can be seen with individuals since the garden. He has never been in the world with regard to the "house of God" as a body of water baptized believers until Pentecost. He did indwell previous houses of God (tabernacle, temple) but they were inanimate materials whereas the "temple of the Holy Spirit" at Corinth was made up of PHYSICAL BODIES (1 Cor. 6:17-19) or individual members thereof - 1 Cor. 12:27) which are "lively stones" instead of inaniminate stones.
4. Is there a difference between the Spirit of God dwelling with them, as opposed to in them?
Yes. The pre-Pentecost institutional new "house of God" was not indwelt by the Spirit until Pentecost. Prior to Pentecost he dwelt "with" the church but as individuals members he indwelt each believer or they would be "none of his" - Rom. 8:9
As explained repeatedly above in every question.5. What does Christ mean when He states "I will come to you?"
6. Is that different than His ministry at the time of this teaching?
Again, the institutional "house of God" during his ministry was led by him in person. Another comforter took his place on the day of Pentecost. Today the manifestations of the indwelt "house of God" is that it is the pillar and ground of the truth where the ministry, ordinances and mission are in keeping with their divine pattern established by Christ in his personal ministry and expounded and defined by the apostles.
You and all Protestants are confused on this point, you can't see it because you are not able to distinguish between these two different kinds of temples of the Holy Spirit.
Do you know what the word "dwelleth" means? It is present tense thus PRE-Pentecost. He is speaking to his "church" as Paul makes this clear in Hebrews 2:13 as it is at this time he instituted the Lord's Supper and He sang a song (Mt. 26:30) with them upon departing and that "you" is called his "church" by Paul in Hebrews. The promise to baptise "you" in the Spirit is confined in every case cited to those previously water baptized believers who had been regularly assembling with Christ from the baptism of John until his ascension as Luke plainly tells you in Acts 1:21-22. This same assembly with a roll of 120 names is the "you" assembling in Acts 2:1 in one place and in one accord which was baptized in the Spirit and then added 3000 not by spirit baptism but by water baptism (Acts 2:40) after receving the gospel by faith. They are called "the church" (Acts 2:46).
Hence, the Holy Spirit was dwelling "with you" the church but on the day of Pentecost "you" the church was baptized in the Spirit.
As individuals they already had the indwelling Spirit, already had present tense eternal life, already had their names written in heaven.
Your problem is that you cant distinguish between the "temple" of the Holy Spirit in 1 Cor. 3:16 which the context demand is "the church" AT CORINTH (see verses 5-10) and the "temple"of the holy Spirit which is the INDIVIDUAL member's physical body in 1 Cor. 6:19.
Indwelling the individuals physical body of the believer occurs at the moment of regeneration, but being indwelt as "the church" temple occurs when they are WATER baptized into that one body as that is how believers who are personally indwelt by the Spirit at faith (Acts 2:41a) are "added" to the church (Acts 2:41b).
You and all Protestants are confused on this point, you can't see it because you are not able to distinguish between these two different kinds of temples of the Holy Spirit.
First, I am not a Protestant, though I often protest against the lifeless commentary to be found on the forums these days.
Secondly, there is no "two different kinds of Temples" in Scripture. There is the Temple which is present under the Law, which was a shadow of the True, and there is the Temple of God that exists...
...only in this Age.
That is...the believer.
When you can understand the difference between the two, you will then see that all that you have just shouted at me is irrelevant. The Church is the Temple of God and the Church began at Pentecost. Prior to that Temple being established there was the Temple made with hands.
Seriously, you need to study Hebrews.
God bless.
When you can't deal with the facts presented, attack the person or attack trite non-important thingsAnd could you do me a favor and fix the code on this post. Bad enough your forum etiquette views shouting at people as acceptable, but do you also have to add the difficulty of quoting in the mix?
God bless.
You are only advertising your complete ignorance of the Bible. HOwever, I will not allow you to remain in ignorance:
When you can't deal with the facts presented, attack the person or attack trite non-important things
Your responses, BIblicist, will be in red.
Darrell C said: ↑
I have addressed and answered every question you have posed in this post, now return the favor and answer these:
1. What is the difference between the Comforter abiding with them forever and their current state at the time of this teaching?
Answered above. However, I will repeat it just for you. He indwelt them as individual temples of the Spirit - their physical bodies as taught clearly in 1 Cor. 6:19 but it was not until Pentecost he indwelt the institutional church as "the temple" of the Holy Spirit as taught clearly in Acts 2:1,40,46 and 1 Cor. 3:10-16).
So He dwelt in them as "temples" but they weren't really temples until Pentecost.
No! There are two completely different types of temples here. One is an institution that is inclusive of a plurality of qualified persons (water baptized believers) that is built according to a divine pattern and whose ministry and ordinances are after a divine pattern. The second is the individual believe as soon as he is regenerated, regardless if he has been water baptized or a member of any institutional church.
The church or that assembly of water baptized believers as an institution had not been indwelt or empowered, or openly and publicly accredited as the "house of God" which would supersede and replace the temple at Jerusalem. As individuals they are not this "house of God." As individuals, each one has a physical body which is a temple of the Holy Spirit and indwelt by the Spirit. As an institution, with officers, ordinances and a commission they had not been baptized in the Spirit and indwelt by the Spirit.
Y
Darrell C said: ↑
2. Is Christ dwelling in them at this time?
The SPIRIT of Christ indwelt them at this time individually. They were chosen "in him" before the world began (Eph. 1:4) as were all "elect" including the nation of Israel that is yet to be saved as a nation (Rom. 11:25-32).
So when He foretells that He, the Father, and the Holy Ghost will indwell them, the Lord overlooks the fact that He is already indwelling them.
Not to play Captain Obvious here, but I will point out that the Lord Jesus Christ began in time as a physical form when God created that form in the womb of Mary. From the time of the creation until the time of His Death...He was not indwelling them.
Secondly, you are nullifying what He is teaching in this passage...how does that sit with you? You are denying the reality of the Incarnation itself, as well as confusing, as you have before, the Trinity.
Again you deny the Prophetic TEnse of HIs teaching.
Y
Darrell C said: ↑
3. Is the Comforter, the Spirit of Truth...already in the world?
He has always been in the world with regard to personal individiual indwelling and all the characteristics of the term translated "comforter" can be seen with individuals since the garden. He has never been in the world with regard to the "house of God" as a body of water baptized believers until Pentecost. He did indwell previous houses of God (tabernacle, temple) but they were inanimate materials whereas the "temple of the Holy Spirit" at Corinth was made up of PHYSICAL BODIES (1 Cor. 6:17-19) or individual members thereof - 1 Cor. 12:27) which are "lively stones" instead of inaniminate stones.
Okay, so Christ is wrong. There is no distinction between the Comforter only being able to come if He returns to Heaven. Doesn't matter that Christ states clearly He is not present, as long as Biblicist teaches He was...that's what we are to believe.
And here you admit that there was a physical Tabernacle/Temple yet you equate this with the Temple of God only present when this Age began.
Do you really delude yourself that direct and detailed responses of your doctrine is displaying that I can't deal with the facts? lol
It is going to seem that I am attacking you, BIblicist, because, well, I am. I am attacking you on the basis of your claim to be a BIblicist, and the claim to be a teacher of sound doctrine.
You deny Christ's own teaching...what's not to attack?
But it isn't personal, my friend, just a method of attempting to get your attention. I have piped unto, I have mourned unto you, and have even resorted to, forgive, me...humor.
Yes it is and everybody reading it know it is and do you know why? You don't provide responses and/or reasonable responses but simply personal attacks.
Okay, so one can be regenerated and not part of the Church.
Curiouser and curiouser.
You know that's funny, because John's disciples, as well as Christ's disciples were baptized, and baptizing, yet nowhere do we see the two groups equated, except in carnal commentaries.
And just for the record, would you please clarify for the Public Record that here you are affirming that one can be born again but not baptized with the Holy Ghost, and...
...one can be regenerated but not part of the Church.
Christ says no such thing as he never utters the word "regeneration" or "new birth" in John 13-17. Why? Because Johbn 13-17 has nothing to do with the new birth or personal indwelling.Which you say already existed prior to Pentecost by reason of the indwelling of Christ which Christ states is a future event.
Against my "better" judgment, I will make one more comment to you. Not sure why, since you, being a hammer, think everything looks like a nail. You have continued to imply that I agree with Biblicist without having read his posts. That is a deception, whether deliberately or ignorantly.And he was challenged to back up what he agreed with, not only was it pointed out that he had not read the discussion in detail.