Andre has admitted that his whole exposition of Romans 2:6-16 stands on his exposition of Romans 2:13 and whether or not “the law” is the Jewish law. He admits that if Paul has in reference the Jewish law then his position is proven wrong. Andre nor anyone else on this forum can simply jerk Romans 2:13 out of its context and define “the law” any way they please.
I give the following absolute proofs from the context that the words “the law” used in Romans 2:12-29 is the Jewish law:
A. PROOF #1: Romans 2:12 provides only two possible options to be judged by in the day of judgment by God. People who have sinned “without law” will be judged “without law” and people who have sinned “in the law” will be judged “by the law.” Either “the law” in question is the Jewish law or the Jewish law will not be used in the day of Judgement. The ten commandments is the Jewish Law. The civil and ceremonial laws are the Jewish law. Andre must take the position that what is uniformly called “the law” of God in both Old and New Testaments will not be used in the day of judgment to judge any man by if he rejects this is the Jewish law.
B. PROOF #2: Romans 2:13 describes “the law” used in the day of judgment as something the one being judged HEARD and thus it was law that was WRITTEN that could be READ to ALL those not being judged “without law.” What law of God is WRITTEN and can be READ and thus HEARD to all who are “in the law” other than the Jewish law of Moses?
C. PROOF #3: Romans 2:14 does not jump midstream but continues to use the words “the law” to describe what Gentiles were “not given.” If Gentiles were “not given” what Paul calls “the law” which was heard by all those “in the law” then that leaves only JEWS. What law was not given the Gentiles but was given the Jews that could be WRITTEN, thus READ to all those “in the law” so as to HEAR and DO its commands?????
D. PROOF #4: Romans 2:14 also further describes “the law” not given to Gentiles but that the Gentile did by nature in regard – “things pertaining to the law.” What law given to Jews are there “things pertaining” to it, that Gentiles do by nature??? The ten commandments? Paul answers this in verse 15 as the law written upon the “heart” (inward man) specifically identified to be that inward part called “CONSCIENCE.” Lost people have a “conscience.” Gentiles have a conscience. God can call the law written upon conscience in contrast to their responses to it as a “witness” against them in the day of judgment. Remember verse 12 says to them that have “sinned” but “without law” shall also “perish” without law. Gentiles were not given “the law” but they were given the law of conscience which corresponds to the moral law of God in principle and thus can be used in the day of judgment as a witness against them as God will expose the “SECRET” inward struggle and violations of conscience by the Gentiles.
E. PROOF #5: The Jews are mentioned by name in regard to the judgement day.
10 But glory, honour, and peace, to every man that worketh good, to the Jew first, and also to the Gentile 11 For there is no respect of persons with God.
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The Jew is to be judged first "to the Jew FIRST" and the ONLY law the Jew can be judged by is "the law" the Jew has been under - MOSAIC LAW. There are only two options provided by Paul in the very next verse (v. 12) as standards of judgement - "as many as have sinned without law" versus "as many as have sinned in THE LAW".
12 For as many as have sinned without law shall also perish without law: and as many as have sinned in the law shall be judged by the law;
The Jews cannot be judged under the first category so that leaves only the second category "as many as have sinned in THE LAW." Since verse 14 denies that Gentiles have been "given THE LAW" this leaves ONLY the Jews who "have sinned in THE LAW" and thus this demands "THE LAW" is the JEWISH LAW or the MOSAIC Law.
F. PROOF #6 - Romans 3:9 says that Paul has proved both Jews and Gentiles are "ALL under sin" and Romans 3:10-12 states that NONE, no, NOT ONE among Jews or Gentiles are righteous. Roman 2:17 says that the Jew:
Behold, thou art called a Jew, and restest in the law, and makest thy boast of God, - Rom. 2:17
Paul goes on to describe "the law" that the Jew rests in as containing the ten commandments and cermonial law as he explicitly lists "circumcision" in verses 25-29 and three of the ten commandments in verses 21-22:
21 Thou therefore which teachest another, teachest thou not thyself? thou that preachest a man should not steal, dost thou steal?
22 Thou that sayest a man should not commit adultery, dost thou commit adultery? thou that abhorrest idols, dost thou commit sacrilege?
However, in the day of judgement according to Romans 2:12 there is only two possible ways to condemn all "under sin" and that is either "without the law" or "in the law"
For as many as have sinned without law shall also perish without law: and as many as have sinned in the law shall be judged by the law;
Only the Jew rests "IN THE LAW":
Behold, thou art called a Jew, and restest IN THE LAW, and makest thy boast of God, - Rom. 2:17
Therefore, "the law" in Romans 2:12-13 must be the Jewish Law as the Jew cannot be judged as those who have sinned "without the law."
Andre may attempt to isolate one proof from the others and dismantle it, but taken together these proofs completely expose his interpretation as error.
These five proofs is the coupe de grace of the whole Justification by "good" works interpretation of this passage. Those being judged in this passage are lost people who think their works will justifiy them. Paul simply spells out the criteria for judgement of works in Romans 2:6-16 while declaring that NONE will pass that judgment in Romans 3:9-20.
