Alan Dale Gross
Active Member
The Blood Atonement of Christ is Effective;
"Those whom God Purposed to Redeem include all who believe John 3:16
is not for all the sins of all people;
- "To justify
- "Isa 53:11 [the single effective cause of justification in view here is the bearing of iniquities; all whose iniquities Christ bore must be justified]; Rom 8:34 [the argument here is that the fact of Christ's death, resurrection, and intercession is in itself an incontrovertibly effective reason for non-condemnation; if this verse is true, then no one for whom Christ died and was raised to intercede may be condemned]
- "To redeem and cleanse from sins
- "Eph 5:25-27; Tit 2:14
- "To propitiate the Father
- "1John 2:2 [“propitiation” means “the turning away or appeasement of wrath”; therefore, by definition, the Father has no more wrath against those whose sins have been propitiated]; 1John 4:10
- "To raise to new life
- "2Cor 5:14-15 [the argument is a simple “if/then” proposition: “if” Christ died for someone, “then,” with no other conditions, that person died with him and was raised again]; 1Pet 3:18
"Those whom God Purposed to Redeem include all who believe John 3:16
- "From every nation
- "Rev 5:9
- "From every class
- "Gal 3:28; 1Tim 2:1-6 [the first “all men” is explicitly tied to all classes of men, which gives warrant for understanding the second “all men” in the same way]
- "Therefore, Christ's saving work is commonly spoken of in terms of “all,” “world,” etc.
- "John 1:29; Tit 2:11-14 [in the context of “all men” is the delimiting concept of a peculiar people, zealous of good works]; Heb 2:9-10 [notice that the many sons whom Christ brings to glory gives a contextual delimiter to the term “every”]; 2Pet 3:9 [note that this desire is explicitly limited to “us” (Peter was writing to fellow-believers) in the context]; 1John 2:2 [propitiation means “appeasement of wrath”; either Jesus appeases God's wrath against all, and therefore hell (which is the place where God's wrath resides) is non-existent; or the “whole world” means something different than “every individual who ever lived”. See John 11:51-52, and “The word 'world' is often used in the sense of 'many,' or 'all of a set'”]
- "The word “all” is often used to indicate all of a set, or even many representatives of a set
- "Mat 10:22; 1Cor 6:12; 1Cor 15:22; Mat 2:3; John 4:29; Act 10:39; Act 17:21; Act 21:28; Act 26:4
- "Or, to indicate all “classes” or “nations,” not all individuals
- "Mat 5:11; Act 2:17; Act 10:12
- "The word “world” is often used in the sense of “many,” or “all of a set”
- "Luk 2:1-2; John 6:33; John 12:19; Act 19:27; Rom 1:8
is not for all the sins of all people;
- "God punishes people in hell, which would be unjust if their sins were atoned for
- "Mark 9:43-44
- "If one were to say, “their sins are atoned for, but that atonement is not applied because of unbelief,” he fails to realize that unbelief is likewise a sin
- "Heb 3:12 [“The Father imposed His wrath due unto, and the Son underwent punishment for either: 1) All the sins of all men; 2) All the sins of some men; or 3) Some of the sins of all men. In which case it may be said: 1) If the last be true all men have some sins to answer for, and so none are saved; 2) That if the second be true, then Christ, in their stead suffered for all the sins of the elect in the whole world, and this is the truth; 3) But if the first is the case, why are not all men free from the punishment due unto their sins? You answer, Because of unbelief. I ask, Is this unbelief a sin, or is it not? If it be, then Christ suffered the punishment due unto it, or He did not. If He did, why must that hinder them more than their other sins for which He died? If He did not, He did not die for all their sins!” – John Owen, The Death of Death in the Death of Christ]
- "God Bears Eternal Wrath against people, which by definition means that His Wrath against them has not been Propitiated [appeased]
- "1The 2:16; 2The 1:6-9."