Concerning R.C. Sproul, I agree with his definition of double-predestination. But if he places (Single) predestination (Individually and not categorically) from before the foundation of the world, it is polished double predestination.
What I mean by individually is If he elected you as an individual before the foundation of the world. Now, if God elected a people (Categorical), before the foundation of the world, then it is not double predestination.
In order for Him to elect one, this means He elected the other for something else. It can be polished and shined to look like something else, but at its root, thats what it is.
Good. We are agreed on a definition of double-predestination. And agreed that it is not the Reformed doctrine. However, you are saying that the Reformed doctrine of predestination is polished double-predestination.
I did not in my previous post quote what the classic doctrine is. So, to use Sproul again, here it is:
In sharp contrast to the caricature of double predestination seen in the positive-positive schema is the classic position of Reformed theology on predestination. In this view predestination is double in that it involves both election and reprobation but is not symmetrical with respect to the mode of divine activity. A strict parallelism of operation is denied. Rather we view predestination in terms of a positive-negative relationship.
In the Reformed view God from all eternity decrees some to election and positively intervenes in their lives to work regeneration and faith by a monergistic work of grace. To the non-elect God withholds this monergistic work of grace, passing them by and leaving them to themselves. He does not monergistically work sin or unbelief in their lives.
And again,
God shows mercy sovereignly and unconditionally to some, and gives justice to those passed over in election. That is to say, God grants the mercy of election to some and justice to others. No one is the victim of injustice. To fail to receive mercy is not to be treated unjustly. God is under no obligation to grant mercy to all — in fact He is under no obligation to grant mercy to any. He says, "I will have mercy upon whom I will have mercy" (Rom. 9). The divine prerogative to grant mercy voluntarily cannot be faulted. If God is required by some cosmic law apart from Himself to be merciful to all men, then we would have to conclude that justice demands mercy. If that is so, then mercy is no longer voluntary, but required. If mercy is required, it is no longer mercy, but justice. What God does not do is sin by visiting injustice upon the reprobate. Only by considering election and reprobation as being asymmetrical in terms of a positive-negative schema can God be exonerated from injustice.
Now I could have hammerd that out in my own words, but Sproul's will do. lol
What Sproul is saying I also came to the same understanding from reading Exodus and Romans 9. I was challenged (at the time) to my own belief and understanding of the Sovereignty of God over nations, kinds, and the salvation of souls. I concluded from Scripture that God is absolutely Sovereign, and does whatever He wills and is good to Him.
So, the classic reformed doctrine is not polished double-predestination. It is something different. That God elected a people cannot be denied. What is hard to fathom is how there can be a people without individuals in it. If God's elected People are all those who believe in Jesus Christ (either looking forward, or looking back) then that People are made of individuals. Did God know who would believe? Both the Calvinist and Evangelical Arminian say yes, of course. Is God's knowledge, or foreknowledge (just in terms of information) infallible and perfect?
Of course it is. (unless we are off into Open Theism). You see, there is no "wiggle" room here for either the "arminian" or "calvinist" In the Wycliffe Dictionary of Theology (made up from Fuller scholars, eek!) under the heading Predestination, it reads,
"Objections against the doctrine of predestination bear with equal force against the foreknowledge of God, because what God foreknows must be as fixed and certain as that which is predestinated." p.416
Do you see the force in this? When someone denies the predestination of God they also are denying the foreknowledge of God. If God has predestinated us "unto the adoption of children by Jesus Christ to Himself" then He foreknows those whom He has predestinated. And this is exactly what the Scripture teaches, and in the proper order, "For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate to be conformed to the image of his son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren. Moreover whom he did predestinate, them he also called: and whom he called, them he also justified: and whom he justified, them he also glorifed." Romans 8:29-30
And this foreknowlege of God is infinite. It is from all eternity, to all eternity, without beginning and without end, perfect, holy, and immutable (unchangeable).
So He knew whom would believe, infallibly, and who would not believe infallibly. Where I depart ways with the arminian/non-cal is that God's election of those whom He foreknew is the cause or spring, of their acceptance of Him whom He unfailingly calls in His proper time, justifies and glorifies. Others, what we call the reprobate, He leaves in their sins unto their just condemnation.
Could you clarify this for me. I am unsure by what you are meaning.
Certainly, but it is to restate much of what is written above. That not every man is saved is not denied by any except the universalists. That some are reprobate and damned is most likely agreed upon by us both. It is the why that we probably disagree on. There are those who are damned because God according to His will passed them by to leave them in their sins. The question I think your asking as to how this brings glory to God, since this man's chief end, is that He brings Himself glory by showing His power and justice upon them, not at all different than His purpose for Pharoah. Can we say God's purpose in raising up Pharoah, which the Scripture says He did, be for Pharoah's salvation? Not when God's purpose was to harden his heart! See Exodus 7:3
But then in chapter 8:15 it reads that Pharoah hardened his own heart. What is then? Did God harden Pharoah's heart, or did Pharoah harden his own heart? Or should we ask, how is it that God hardened Pharoah's heart? I would suggest by not restraining him, or witholding him from sin. Let me offer one example.
Consider Abimelech to whom Abraham told him that Sarah was his sister (for the second time). Abimelech took her, but God came to Abimelech in a dream and tells him he a dead man. The Scripture says that Abimelech had not come near her. And he reasons with the Lord that he acted within the integrity of his heart. The Lord tells him that he knows he acted in this manner, "for I also witheld thee from sinning against me: therefore suffered I thee not to touch her." See Genesis 20:1-6
Without a doubt Abimelech acted according to his will and volition not even aware that it was the Lord that witheld him. This is a clear act of God restraining sin, like the He says to to the seas, "Hitherto shalt thou come, but no further: and here thy proud waves be stayed" Job 38:11
So we see that God may purpose to harden a man or restrain him in his sin. God works all things together according to the counsel of His will. Eph 1:11 And it is in this sense we can understand Proverbs 16:4 "The LORD hath made all things for himself, yea, even the wicked for the day of evil."
I do feel this is relevant to the doctrine of predestination. Simply because it was Spurgeon who claims they are elect. Without repentance, faith or being born again ( I have read only one article on Spurgeon and this topic, so if I am in error, please correct me). I find these things necessary for everyone unless one accepts the doctrine AoA.
Actually my brother, the sermon Spurgeon preached on this subject was that the child is elect, but not without repentance, faith, or being born again. And it is wholly upon Calivinistic principles that he explains his belief. If you like, you can read it here
http://www.spurgeon.org/sermons/0411.htm
Could you explain to me your definition of predestination and election? We may have ventured off the OP a little, but I find that when dealing with a question, we sometimes have to dig deeper to find answers. It sometimes puts a "Kink" in what we have always thought, but thats one of the reasons why I am here. I would like to iron out the wrinkles....
Perhaps some of what I have written expains some of this already, but for the sake of a distinct definition:
Predestination: God's purpose concerning the everlasting destiny of the human race.
Election: Included in predestination. His purpose in saving eternally some men and angels. (there are elect angels, and called such in Scripture). And is of individuals. In Romans 8:29,30 it is whom He foreknew, not what, as a class or category. It is "As many as were ordained to eternal life, believed." Jesus tells His disciples that their names, each one, are written in heaven. Their names are written, not the conditions of their salvation. And all the elect of God have their names written in heaven.
I eleborated a little on election because of your statements regarding category as opposed to individuals. God's everlasting and special Love is set upon His people, each one whom He foreknew, above and immeasurably beyond His general care for all men. The doctrine of election ought not to be a doctrine to be despised, but for the believer, a fountain of joy in knowing they are truly love by God with an everlasting love, and spring of rejoicing knowing their names are written in Heaven.