Baptize was an already established English word long before 1611.
http://www.learnthebible.org/q_a_baptism_in_the_king_james_bible.htm
http://members.aol.com/kjvisbest/baptizo.htm
http://bz.llano.net/baptist/baptisminkjv.htm
http://www.websters-online-dictionary.org/definition/english/ba/baptize.html
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It never ceases to amaze me that so called scholars, who obviously consider themselves to be well educated, can spout such nonsense. Any person who knows how to read can look up the word "baptize" in the Oxford English Dictionary and see that the word "baptize" did not enter the English language in 1611 via a transliteration of the Greek word "baptizo", but rather, had been in common usage in England for over five hundred years, having come into the English language via the French "baptiste", at the time of the Norman invasion under William the Conqueror in 1066 A.D.! Also, a quick look at the Tyndale New Testament, of 1526, will reveal that Tyndale translated the word as "baptise" eighty-five years before the AV was first published. A look at the word "immerse" in that same dictionary will reveal that at the time the King James translators were working, the word immerse did not mean the same as it does now, to submerge in, but at that time meant "merge with", and only came to mean "submerge in" in 1613. No intelligent person would suggest today such a meaning for baptism, yet these so-called scholars are constantly assaulting our ears and intellects with such nonsense! If a student of mine handed in a paper full of such errors in simple research I would give him an "F", and make him start over. Too bad Central didn't have such a standard for its faculty. (Sorry, I got a little petulant there!) (From:
http://members.tripod.com/~ThomasCassidy/baptize.html
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"For we will hear, note, and believe in heart,
That what you speak is in your conscience wash'd
As pure as sin with baptism." (--Henry V, I.ii.30-2.)
"My Lord of Canterbury,
I have a suit which you must not deny me:
That is, a fair young maid that yet wants baptism;
You must be godfather, and answer for her." (--Henry VIII, V.iii.159-62.)
"And then for her
To win the Moor, were't to renounce his baptism,
All seals and symbols of redeemed sin,
His soul is so enfetter'd to her love,
That she may make, unmake, do what she list . . . ." (--Othello, II.iii.325-9.)
"I take thee at thy word.
Call me but love, and I'll be new baptiz'd;
Henceforth I never will be Romeo." (--Romeo and Juliet, II.ii.49-51.)
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Were Anabaptists around at the time the KJV was translated? What were they called? They were not called "Anaplungers"! The word "baptist" was already an established word. How absurd it would have been to give up the word "baptism" when translating the KJV! Two hundred years ago, Dr. George Campbell stated that he wanted to adopt the word "immerse" instead of "baptize," since it was obviously the meaning of that word. Yet, he confessed he was not about to do so since "baptism" had been so long in use! And this brings up one last thing. It is utter hypocrisy to use the word "baptism" or have BAPTIST as a church name and then sit in the pulpit and criticize the KJV translators for using "baptize" instead of "dip"! To be more consistent, such a Bible corrector should refer to himself as, "Pastor of the First DIP church"! (No pun intended...really.) (From:
http://www.kingdombaptist.org/article435.cfm
