"the Christ" in the KJV

[HankD]

Hey broHankD! I used the term "king james" because it's what I've come to find out that's what folks here think of me..."king james only". I was THAT bible (only) before I discovered it wasn't "cool" to be king james only...understand?

Yes, I understand Granny

I think I'll bow out of this fray for a while.

Granny, michelle, I love you both in Christ.
You are two gutsy ladies!

HankD

 

[robycop3]

"With water" does not mean the same thing as "in water". One is the better translation and one is not. One refutes baptism by sprinkling but the other doesn't. One supports Baptist doctrine. One has an Anglican bias.
--------------------------------------------------


Michelle:This is your "opinion", so as to try to prove a false claim, but God's word has said otherwise. See my example.

Actually, it's YOUR opinion at work here, because you blindly accept the Anglican KJVO translators' opinion about everything...LONG AS IT AGREES WITH THE KJVO MYTH! You totally dismiss a marginal note by some of those same translators concerning Ps. 12:7, making your double standard quite apparent.

 

[robycop3]

Granny Gumbo:Hey broHankD! I used the term "king james" because it's what I've come to find out that's what folks here think of me..."king james only". I was THAT bible (only) before I discovered it wasn't "cool" to be king james only...understand?

Same as many were "Geneva Bible Only" until KJ ruled it to be uncool.

Fortunately, we have a choice today...to use the many resources God has made available to us or to remain stuck in the mud.

 

[GrannyGumbo]

Hey brorobycop3...whatever sets your sails is fine by me...like I told someone else, I'm nobody's Holy Spirit, and we will ALL have to give an account to God one day, amen? If that Geneva bible you mentioned is the one that produced the one I use, then if I'd been living during it's time, I'm certain that's the one I'd use.

I love you too, bro HankD! God bless and take care!

There's some real gentlemen on this Board, eh?

 

[Ed Edwards]

John 1:41 (KJV1769):

He first findeth his own brother Simon,
and saith unto him, We have found the Messias,
which is, being interpreted, the Christ.

John 1:41 (HCSB):

He first found his own brother Simon
and told him, "We have found the Messiah!"
(which means "Anointed One"),

BTW, the phrase "the Christ" does NOT
appear in the Holman Christian Standard
Bible (HCSB). Therefore, critics of the
NIV should praise the HCSB, yes?

No, for "you have to use the KJVO or you
are lost" folk have a double standard.
See my documentation of KJVO's doubles at:

http://www.baptistboard.com/cgi-bin/ultimatebb.cgi/topic/4/1411/9.html?

Praise Iesus, the Sonne of God!

 

[Lacy Evans]

Originally posted by HankD:I posted this to a specific individual who did not respond, so I will ask any KJVO the same.

Here is another area of the Church of England influence on the 1611AV:

KJV 1 Timothy 3:1 This is a true saying, If a man desire the office of a bishop, he desireth a good work.

To any KJVO:
Does the office of bishop exist in your local Baptist Church?

If no, why not?

HankD

I am a bishop/elder/overseer/pastor. (all synonyms) I think there should be more than one, but so far we only have one.
We are a very small and a very young church plant.

Lacy

 

[Lacy Evans]

Originally posted by Dr. Bob:
Amen, Scott. Lacy is still tilting at windmills against W/H like anyone cares?

I NEVER bring up W&H. (Cool Don Quijote allusion though - I think) It's not necessary to my argument. You continually bring up the KJV translators. I was simply giving you the option to talk W/H vs KJV translators if you really think you want to.
I'll accept it as a wash and shut up, but we both know it is not a wash especially when you compare their knowlege of ancient languages.

Lacy

 

[HankD]

I am a bishop/elder/overseer/pastor. (all synonyms) I think there should be more than one, but so far we only have one.
We are a very small and a very young church plant.

Synonyms? how many times has anyone called you "bishop"?

Not even once? Why not? Are you ashamed of the terms used in the Word of God?

The plain truth is that the term "bishop" supports the dogma of a sacerdotal or ministerial priesthood of the Catholic and Anglo-Catholic churches. You are rationalizing Lacy.

HankD

 

[Ed Edwards]

Originally posted by Lacy Evans:
I NEVER bring up W&H. (Cool Don Quijote allusion though - I think) It's not necessary to my argument.

I testify to that. You are one clever dude.

The anti-W&H anti-Bible bias
is about like blaming national obesity
problems on the Red M&M.

Praise Iesus, Sonne of God

 

[Lacy Evans]

Originally posted by HankD:
The plain truth is that the term "bishop" supports the dogma of a sacerdotal or ministerial priesthood of the Catholic and Anglo-Catholic churches. You are rationalizing Lacy.

HankD

Some of you are getting quite good at discerning a man's heart. Perhaps you should pay a visit to the Charismatic Board!

If you will please go to my web-site, click on "link of the month", scroll down to Janurary 2004, you will see a nice book written by Alexander Strauch called "Biblical Eldership". I am in complete agreement with this book concerning the uses of the terms, "pastor/bishop/elder". I have been for some time.

Just because a Catholic uses bread and wine, doesen't mean the KJV translators were catholic for leaving those elements in their translation of the Lord's supper. "Bishop" is a good word. Many black churches use the term correctly as a synonym for pastor. No reach. My conviction. Don't let others steal our words. Again it is a case of whether I bend to the Word or bend the Word to me. It would take just a short time of study to determine what God means by "bishop". Who cares what the Catholics, the KJV translators, W&H, or the whole BB mean by "bishop"

Lacy

 

[HankD]

Who cares what the Catholics, the KJV translators, W&H, or the whole BB mean by "bishop"

That's right. But the ultimate point is what they meant by it at the time and why they chose the ecclesistical word "bishop". Because then as now their doctrine supports a ministerial priesthood.

HankD

 

[Lacy Evans]

No, the ultimate point is, "What does the Bible mean by 'bishop'?" The context is clear as a bell. A bishop, an elder, and a pastor are the same. If the KJV translators were so hell bent on creating a "priesthood", then why leave the context so clear that defines the office? The KJV almost single handedly destroyed the notion of a "ministerial priesthood." More historical facts , more fruit.

Lacy

 

[HankD]

No, the ultimate point is, "What does the Bible mean by 'bishop'?"

OK then that is the ultimate point but my point is what THEY meant by it's use was influenced by their theology.

HankD

 

[Lacy Evans]

Even if that was their aim Hank. (We cannot know their hearts - either way), were they sucessful? Did the KJV result in widespread confusion about "church", "baptism", "Christ", and "whale-fish"? Or did it result in a couple hundred years of honest, open questioning and Godly shaking of many of the old "high-church" extra-biblical doctrines.

Lacy

 

[HankD]

Even if that was their aim Hank. (We cannot know their hearts - either way), were they sucessful? Did the KJV result in widespread confusion about "church", "baptism", "Christ", and "whale-fish"? Or did it result in a couple hundred years of honest, open questioning and Godly shaking of many of the old "high-church" extra-biblical doctrines.

There were elemnts of both success and failure. Actually now that you mention it, error doesn't seem to depend on the quality of translation.

HankD