In issues like this... first one brings his own beliefs to the table: In this case... though the question is about a seemingly appearance of contradiction found in the Scripture..... the real issue is 'does God contradict Himself': However a person has come to his own decision and belief about this, he either has his mind already made up (in which case it is not likely to be changed) OR he does not know God and is in need of answers concerning God's attributes..... and must also define his(this person with the questions) own limitations concerning weakness in understanding. If one believes that God does not contradict himself.... then the issue is not with God but with our understanding of His Word or the question of whether what we received as 'The Word' is preserved without error.
A problem will always exist for the person who comes to these questions with a question about the integrity of God: Also with a question concerning the preservation of the truth of the scriptures: Before one can truly go forward... these of necessity must be accepted, or at least axiomized within their mind as a 'given' before one can move on. To move on means a person has to be able to question their OWN understanding and be willing to submit (to the authority of God and the scriptures)... or else they are accepting their own superiority over both God and the scriptures and remain in the bondage of their own darkness and (without even acknowledging it) the limitations of their own understanding.
Second, as we are all dependant on the truth of the Book which tells us about God, he is questioning two verses which appear in direct comparison to have a contradiction..... but do they?
Already very well explained in this thread that there is no contradiction, still the person bringing this question to the table is not satisfied? Why? Not because the words change... because they do not, but because of his own dependence on his own understanding in this particular matter:
It may help Askjo to first consider that the divisions of the Bible into Chapters and verses is a convienence of modern developement to assist us in finding reference and study. The original autographs would not have these verses separated from the context of the content in which they are presented.
Therefore, in this and all other instances of Askjo's Bible Study, whereupon he comes to what seems to him to be contradictions.... he must look at the context.... of what is being taught, to whom, for what purpose, excetra.
In John 5, Jesus is presenting a legal defense before Jews who have accused him. Their authority is the Law of Moses: His authority comes directly from God: Their jurisdiction and the limits of their understanding are based upon what they've been taught concerning the scriptures: He identifies directly with the Father in authority (make that author) and to the Father's will. Under the Law of Moses, a testimony (witness, evidence, etc.) is not established as fact without 3 witnesses: Jesus presents these three...... the testimony of John, the demonstration of the Father's authority in the power and works performed by Jesus, and the Scriptures which tell of him. Under their accusation, his merely giving testimony of himself (that is, his declaration of authority without evidence to His authority) was not sufficient under their law to accept as truth his identity and authority, which was the question. [Interestingly, in the same unbroken passage of scripture, Jesus examines the hypocrisy of his accusers: They willingly accept each other's word (on their own testimony without proof) as being whoever and whatever they say they are and do honor each other without proof or question (like 'I'm John Smith's daughter', and 'this is my title of authority in such and such town'), yet they deny and question His authority even when the power of his works gives undeniable evidence.]
In the same book of John, a later chapter (8), a different context: Examine it, Askjo, and see the full unbroken context of it: Jesus makes a statement and the Pharisees accuse him of bearing record of himself, and (upon that evidence) they accuse him of being a liar: In his response, Jesus asserts what should have been obvious to them (but wasn't because of their blindness and presupposition), that even though he bears record (testimony) of himself, it is true (i.e., no lie or un-truth [which begs the question..... if a persons is telling about himself....is it the self-report WHICH IS evidence of a lie? or can a person be stating the truth EVEN THOUGH it is a self-report?]). Then he exposes relationships which has to do both with his certainty of His being who He represents Himself to be..... and the relationship of His accusers for their darkness in understanding because of their [lack of] relationship to being who they represent themselves to be.
Context is everything to both passages.... and, even in comparing the two verses, they are not identical in statement nor meaning.
I hope this expository is complete enough to give you more interest and courage to examine the Word, Askjo, and develop all confidence in its truth. Until you come to this confidence in its truth, these issues, which may seem like 'contradictions', but which are not, will be a mole-hill turned into a mountain blocking you from fully accepting all the treasures God has placed in his Word for you. May the Spirit of God speak to you through His Word and bring you into a true understanding of all the goodness that He desires for you.
:godisgood:
raying: