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The Covenant of Redemption

Van

Well-Known Member
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Covenant Theology is a view that interprets the Bible through the eyes of speculative rationalism. In eternity, before creation, the Godhead committed to a purpose and plan they call the “Covenant of Redemption.” Evidence from scripture can be found in that the Lamb of God was “foreknown” before the foundation of the world, 1 Peter 1:19-20.

I must digress here to explain that “foreknowledge” refers to knowledge obtained or formulated in the past, and is be utilized or implemented in the present. Thus God knew, before creation, that the Lamb of God was part of the “Covenant of Redemption” which is being implemented in the present, i.e. has appeared in these last times. Thus this view appears to have at least a basis in scripture. And this is bolstered by Ephesians 1:3-4 where God chose us in Him before the foundation of the world. This again points to a plan of redemption before creation, the Covenant of Redemption. Thus the plan of redemption was formulated before creation, and the Second Person of the Godhead –the Word – was chosen as the Redeemer – the Lamb of God, and those to be redeemed were known (either individually or corporately) before creation. Therefore when you see the plan of redemption being described, it includes the blessings of the redemption plan being applied in the present to those people God planed for in the past and therefore foreknew.

With this overarching view of history in mind, then the Bible describes the unfolding of this Covenant of Redemption. So far so good! But what does the Bible say is the reason for this “Covenant of Redemption.” To bring glory to God! When we repent we bring glory to God. Therefore our repentance must be autonomous, because if it were compelled, then it would not bring glory to God.

In summary the Covenant of Redemption seems valid, but the Calvinistic characterization of the plan seems mistaken. As biblical "strict constructionists," we characterize the redemption plan according to a more literal understanding of the text. Therefore we reject most of Covenant Theology and embrace the more literal dispensational view, whether traditional or progressive. But we should not throw the baby out with the bathwater. The Bible presents the Covenant of Redemption.
 

Martin Marprelate

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References to the Covenant of Redemption (aka Covenant of Grace) can be found in various parts of the Bible if one is prepared to look for them as the following examples will show:-

Luke 22:22. “And truly the Son of Man goes as it has been determined……” Determined where and by whom if not in the Covenant of Redemption?

John 6:38-39. “For I have come down from heaven, not to do My own will, but the will of Him who sent Me. This is the will of the Father who sent Me, that of all He has given Me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up at the last day.” Christ has been given a people and the task by the Father which He is determined to fulfil. What can this refer to if not the Covenant of Redemption?

John 10:16. “And other sheep I have which are not of this fold; them also I must bring, and they will hear My voice; and there will be one flock and one shepherd.” Not, “I will bring,” but, “I must bring.” Our Lord had been given a commission to fulfil.

John 10:17-18. “Therefore My Father loves Me, because I lay down My life that I may take it again. No one takes it from Me, but I lay it down of Myself. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it again. This command I have received from My Father.” Where did Christ receive this command, the doing of which merited so well the Father’s love? In the Covenant of Redemption, of course.

Phil 2:6-8. ‘Who, being in the form of God, did not consider equality with God something to be held onto, but made Himself of no reputation, taking the form of a bondservant, and coming in the likeness of men. And being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself and became obedient to the point of death, even the death of the cross.’ In the Covenant of Redemption, our Lord gave up temporarily that equality with the Father that had existed from all eternity, and became the willing servant of Exodus 21:5-6 and Psalm 40:6-8 in order to rescue those who had been given to Him (John 17:2, 6 ).

Heb 2:13. ‘Here am I and the children whom God has given to Me.’ Given by the Father to the Son in the Covenant of Redemption to be redeemed from sin and brought to heaven.

In Isaiah 42:6, Christ is described as the Covenant itself. He is, in His own Person and work, the very substance of it. In Mal 3:1, He is, ‘The Messenger of the Covenant’ because He came to proclaim it and make it known. In Heb 7:22, He is, ‘The Surety of a better covenant.’ Christ came as the representative of fallen Man, being engaged to fulfil the obligations incurred under the Covenant of Works. In Heb 9:15, He is, ‘The Mediator of the New Covenant’ since He has brought about legal satisfaction between God and man so that covenantal blessings are now imparted to those who had previously forfeited them, and He now stands between the two parties, advocating the cause of man to God (1John 2:1 etc. ) and speaking a word of the comfort of God to the weary man (Isaiah 50:4 ).
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
LOL, I say the Covenant of Redemption (COR) seems valid, and the response is to say the Covenant of Redemption is valid. Both the Old Covenant, under the Law of Moses, and the New Covenant under the Law of Liberty reflect the Covenant of Redemption.

The issue in dispute is the characterization ascribed to the COR by Calvinism.

Are people chosen individually before the foundation of the world or during their physical lifetime after they come to faith?

Did Christ die as a ransom for all, or only for those supposedly previously chosen as individuals?

Does God choose individuals for salvation through faith in the truth, or did He choose individuals without regard for their faith?

Do fallen individuals have the innate ability to understand spiritual milk, or are the fallen unable to understand any spiritual thing?
 

JesusFan

Well-Known Member
LOL, I say the Covenant of Redemption (COR) seems valid, and the response is to say the Covenant of Redemption is valid. Both the Old Covenant, under the Law of Moses, and the New Covenant under the Law of Liberty reflect the Covenant of Redemption.

The issue in dispute is the characterization ascribed to the COR by Calvinism.

Are people chosen individually before the foundation of the world or during their physical lifetime after they come to faith?

Did Christ die as a ransom for all, or only for those supposedly previously chosen as individuals?

Does God choose individuals for salvation through faith in the truth, or did He choose individuals without regard for their faith?

Do fallen individuals have the innate ability to understand spiritual milk, or are the fallen unable to understand any spiritual thing?
Is election based the sovereign will of God, or upon sovereign will of man?
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Is election based the sovereign will of God, or upon sovereign will of man?
2 Thessalonians 2:13 and Romans 9:16 answer your question!

Note that this poster thinks it is ok to ask questions, while refusing to answer questions, such as those posed in post #3
 

JesusFan

Well-Known Member
LOL, I say the Covenant of Redemption (COR) seems valid, and the response is to say the Covenant of Redemption is valid. Both the Old Covenant, under the Law of Moses, and the New Covenant under the Law of Liberty reflect the Covenant of Redemption.

The issue in dispute is the characterization ascribed to the COR by Calvinism.

Are people chosen individually before the foundation of the world or during their physical lifetime after they come to faith?

Did Christ die as a ransom for all, or only for those supposedly previously chosen as individuals?

Does God choose individuals for salvation through faith in the truth, or did He choose individuals without regard for their faith?

Do fallen individuals have the innate ability to understand spiritual milk, or are the fallen unable to understand any spiritual thing?
answers, as per the bible
first one
second one
second one
second one
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
answers, as per the bible
first one
second one
second one
second one
A litany of false claims, with no scripture to support those fictions.
People are chosen for salvation individually through faith, 2 Thessalonians 2:13.
People were chosen for salvation corporately, as those the individually chosen Redeemer might redeem based on their faith being credited. That is the meaning of "chosen in Him." Ephesians 1:4, Romans 4:23-25.
Christ died as a Ransom for all, 1 Timothy 2:6
Fallen individuals have the innate ability to understand spiritual milk, that is why Paul spoke to "men of flesh" using spiritual milk. 1 Corinthians 3:1.
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Summary, the Covenant of Redemption is as follows: Everyone believing into Christ will not perish but have everlasting lift. To believe into Him refers to the individuals faith in the name of Christ being credited as righteousness by God, and on that basis transferring the individual into Christ's spiritual body. After then undergoing the washing of regeneration, the individual is indwelt, such that they are withing Christ and Christ is within them.
 

JesusFan

Well-Known Member
A litany of false claims, with no scripture to support those fictions.
People are chosen for salvation individually through faith, 2 Thessalonians 2:13.
People were chosen for salvation corporately, as those the individually chosen Redeemer might redeem based on their faith being credited. That is the meaning of "chosen in Him." Ephesians 1:4, Romans 4:23-25.
Christ died as a Ransom for all, 1 Timothy 2:6
Fallen individuals have the innate ability to understand spiritual milk, that is why Paul spoke to "men of flesh" using spiritual milk. 1 Corinthians 3:1.
You keep stating all of this, but Bible keeps on refuting you
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
You keep stating all of this, but Bible keeps on refuting you
More of the same false claims, with no scripture to support those fictions.
People are chosen for salvation individually through faith, 2 Thessalonians 2:13.
People were chosen for salvation corporately, as those the individually chosen Redeemer might redeem based on their faith being credited. That is the meaning of "chosen in Him." Ephesians 1:4, Romans 4:23-25.
Christ died as a Ransom for all, 1 Timothy 2:6
Fallen individuals have the innate ability to understand spiritual milk, that is why Paul spoke to "men of flesh" using spiritual milk. 1 Corinthians 3:1.
 

percho

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
LOL, I say the Covenant of Redemption (COR) seems valid, and the response is to say the Covenant of Redemption is valid. Both the Old Covenant, under the Law of Moses, and the New Covenant under the Law of Liberty reflect the Covenant of Redemption.

The issue in dispute is the characterization ascribed to the COR by Calvinism.

Are people chosen individually before the foundation of the world or during their physical lifetime after they come to faith?

Did Christ die as a ransom for all, or only for those supposedly previously chosen as individuals?

Does God choose individuals for salvation through faith in the truth, or did He choose individuals without regard for their faith?

Do fallen individuals have the innate ability to understand spiritual milk, or are the fallen unable to understand any spiritual thing?
My thoughts.

I would like to say that I like your posts whether i agree or disagree, whether i understand them or not, I like them for I believe you put a lot of thought in them.

I agree redemption was foreknown before the foundation of the world and established to be fulfilled through of the blood {life unto death} of the Christ. That said, I ask, are not the OT saints redeemed by the blood of Christ just as the saints in the church were redeemed by the blood of Christ?

Methinks Yes; Therefore lets consider the OT saint Jeremiah. Jer 1:5 Before I formed thee in the belly I knew thee; and before thou camest forth out of the womb I sanctified thee, and I ordained thee a prophet unto the nations.

Does that not show he was chosen before he was conceived?

IMHO I believe the same thing could be said of Paul. I also believe God is doing what He is doing according to a plan. Redeemed IMO s to be redeemed from sin and death brought about by non compliance to: thou shalt not eat of it:
That is the law that led to sin which led to death from which all need to be redeemed.

Gal 4:5 YLT that those under law he may redeem, that the adoption of sons we may receive;
Adoption of sons comes about through being indwelt with the Spirit of adoption see Rom 8:15 KJV For ye have not received the spirit of bondage again to fear; but ye have received the Spirit of adoption, whereby we cry, Abba, Father.

That Spirit began being poured out fifty days following the day following the weekly sabbath following the death of Christ. The day of first-fruits. See also Rom 8:23 And not only they, but ourselves also, which have the firstfruits of the Spirit, even we ourselves groan within ourselves, waiting for the adoption, to wit, the redemption of our body.

I ask, Why first fruits, why not just the Spirit. What is God doing?

Wonder if John Calvin ever considered the first fruit of the Spirit relative to the foreknown?

Consider also Acts 15 is all about the Spirit, us and them and the residue of mankind. V 8, 14, 17
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
My thoughts.

I would like to say that I like your posts whether i agree or disagree, whether i understand them or not, I like them for I believe you put a lot of thought in them.

I agree redemption was foreknown before the foundation of the world and established to be fulfilled through of the blood {life unto death} of the Christ. That said, I ask, are not the OT saints redeemed by the blood of Christ just as the saints in the church were redeemed by the blood of Christ?

Methinks Yes; Therefore lets consider the OT saint Jeremiah. Jer 1:5 Before I formed thee in the belly I knew thee; and before thou camest forth out of the womb I sanctified thee, and I ordained thee a prophet unto the nations.

Does that not show he was chosen before he was conceived?

IMHO I believe the same thing could be said of Paul. I also believe God is doing what He is doing according to a plan. Redeemed IMO s to be redeemed from sin and death brought about by non compliance to: thou shalt not eat of it:
That is the law that led to sin which led to death from which all need to be redeemed.

Gal 4:5 YLT that those under law he may redeem, that the adoption of sons we may receive;
Adoption of sons comes about through being indwelt with the Spirit of adoption see Rom 8:15 KJV For ye have not received the spirit of bondage again to fear; but ye have received the Spirit of adoption, whereby we cry, Abba, Father.

That Spirit began being poured out fifty days following the day following the weekly sabbath following the death of Christ. The day of first-fruits. See also Rom 8:23 And not only they, but ourselves also, which have the firstfruits of the Spirit, even we ourselves groan within ourselves, waiting for the adoption, to wit, the redemption of our body.

I ask, Why first fruits, why not just the Spirit. What is God doing?

Wonder if John Calvin ever considered the first fruit of the Spirit relative to the foreknown?

Consider also Acts 15 is all about the Spirit, us and them and the residue of mankind. V 8, 14, 17
Thanks for your kind words.

1) The Old Testament Saints were NOT redeemed during their physical lifetime by the shed blood of the Lamb, He had not yet died! Time travel theology is a fiction to nullify God's word.

2) Lets go over Jeremiah 1:5 one more time.

“Before I formed you in the womb I knew you,
And before you were born I consecrated you;
I have appointed you as a prophet to the nations.” NASB​

a) When was Jeremiah formed? At conception or when he reached full term. If you deny Jer was not fully formed during the first 8 or so months of his life, then there is nothing more I can say. But if you admit Jeremiah was not formed until after conception, then God's knowledge is said to exist when Jeremiah was conceived, and not before. So once again we have a vague phrase into which manipulators have read into it their man-made doctrine.

b) Next, we have the word "consecrated" or "sanctified" but that does not mean "washed with the blood of the Lamb." Here was not made holy and blameless, and therefore went to Abraham's bosom when he physically died. As one of the spirits in Abraham's bosom, he had to wait to be made perfect. Hebrews 11:39-40.

c) The verse shows that Jeremiah was chosen before he was fully formed. God forms our human spirit when we are conceived, for He forms our spirit within our physical body, Zechariah 12:1. And so that is when God first knew us. All this known as foreseen individuals is simply rewriting God's word with man-made conjecture, precluded by scripture.

d) For what purpose did God chose and appoint Jeremiah? As a "Prophet" to the nations. To claim this includes salvation using the foreseen blood of the Lamb is precluded by Hebrews 11:39-40.

3) Yes, the same thing as explained above can be applied to Paul. Your belief Paul was chosen for salvation before He called on the name of the Lord has absolutely no support in scripture. In fact scripture precludes the claim. What must we do to be saved? Read John 6:28-29. Anyone who claims they OT saints believed in the risen Christ before Christ was born is pushing utter nonsense. Full stop.

4) Turning now to Galatians 4:5:
so that He might redeem those who were under the Law, that we might receive the adoption as sons and daughters.

a) Your claim about the verse is nonsense. After we are redeemed, then we receive the spirit of adoption, but we have not yet been adopted, that comes when Christ returns, at His Second Coming.

b) Romans 8:23 says those born anew will NOT receive adoption (i.e. receive the full rights as a child of God) until His second coming.

c) You mentioned "the day of first fruits" but did not elaborate. Here is what you may have been talking about:

Like the other Jewish feasts in the Old Testament, the Feast of Firstfruits prophetically foreshadowed the coming Messiah and His ministry. In 1 Corinthians 15:20, Paul refers to Christ and His resurrection as “the firstfruits of those who have fallen asleep.” Just as the first portion of the harvest in the Old Testament anticipated the full harvest still to come, Jesus’ resurrection anticipated the full resurrection to come for all those who are in Christ. His resurrection signals the very beginning of a brand-new creation promised in the Old Testament (Isaiah 43:18–19; 65:17). Similarly, in Romans 8:23, Paul says that the indwelling of the Holy Spirit is the “firstfruits” of the redemption God will bring to His creation. From What was the Feast of Firstfruits? | GotQuestions.org

 

JesusFan

Well-Known Member
More of the same false claims, with no scripture to support those fictions.
People are chosen for salvation individually through faith, 2 Thessalonians 2:13.
People were chosen for salvation corporately, as those the individually chosen Redeemer might redeem based on their faith being credited. That is the meaning of "chosen in Him." Ephesians 1:4, Romans 4:23-25.
Christ died as a Ransom for all, 1 Timothy 2:6
Fallen individuals have the innate ability to understand spiritual milk, that is why Paul spoke to "men of flesh" using spiritual milk. 1 Corinthians 3:1.

More of the same false claims, with no scripture to support those fictions.
People are chosen for salvation individually through faith, 2 Thessalonians 2:13.
The Holy Spirit Himself grants them saving faith to their election by God the Father before foundation of the world
People were chosen for salvation corporately, as those the individually chosen Redeemer might redeem based on their faith being credited. That is the meaning of "chosen in Him." Ephesians 1:4, Romans 4:23-25.
We do nothing to get ourselves saved though, as that is due to the grace, mercy, and will of God
Christ died as a Ransom for all, 1 Timothy 2:6
His death suffieint to have saved all, but only effectually those who were chosen to be saved in the beloved
Fallen individuals have the innate ability to understand spiritual milk, that is why Paul spoke to "men of flesh" using spiritual milk. 1 Corinthians 3:1.
natural men receive not the things of the scriptures in a saving sense, as can only be spiritually discerned by saved persons
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
The Holy Spirit Himself grants them saving faith to their election by God the Father before foundation of the world

We do nothing to get ourselves saved though, as that is due to the grace, mercy, and will of God

His death suffieint to have saved all, but only effectually those who were chosen to be saved in the beloved

natural men receive not the things of the scriptures in a saving sense, as can only be spiritually discerned by saved persons
1) False claim, no scripture supports the fiction.
2) Scripture precludes being chosen before being children of wrath, as no charge can be brought against the Elect. Ephesians 2:3, Romans 8:33
3) The lost obtain access to God's saving grace through faith. Romans 5:1-2.
4) Christ died for all of humanity, those to be saved and those never to be saved. 1 Timothy 2:6, 2 Peter 2:1
5) The lost can understand Spiritual Milk, the fundamentals of the Gospel. 1 Corinthians 3:1-3. That is why Paul to "men of flesh" using Spiritual Milk.
 
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