Hi all. :wavey:
I haven't posted much here in months, but this thread caught my attention.
I don't understand how this is even an issue.
Even when I was a dispy I agreed that Jesus was already the mediator of the New Covenant. Strange. Is this some sort of hyper-dispensational view?
The writer of Hebrews (Paul or not is irrelevant) clearly says the New Covenant was brought in by Jesus 2000 years ago now. Hebrews 8 is very clear:
Now the main point in what has been said is this: we have such a high priest, who has taken His seat at the right hand of the throne of the Majesty in the heavens, a minister in the sanctuary and in the true tabernacle, which the Lord pitched, not man. For every high priest is appointed to offer both gifts and sacrifices; so it is necessary that this high priest also have something to offer. Now if He were on earth, He would not be a priest at all, since there are those who offer the gifts according to the Law; who serve a copy and shadow of the heavenly things, just as Moses was warned by God when he was about to erect the tabernacle; for, "SEE," He says, "THAT YOU MAKE all things ACCORDING TO THE PATTERN WHICH WAS SHOWN YOU ON THE MOUNTAIN." But now He has obtained a more excellent ministry, by as much as He is also the mediator of a better covenant, which has been enacted on better promises. - Heb 8:1-6 NASB
Jesus, as our great high priest and also our sacrifice, has once for all time fulfilled the shadow of the Mosaic Law. Through his complete work he has now obtained a "more excellent ministry" which immediately correlates with his mediation of "a better covenant," based on or "enacted on better promises." The whole point here is that Jesus has complete the OT Law and has secured better
everything for his people in his life death and resurrection, including a better, and
new, covenant. Also notice this was already a reality in the writers day, "
now He has obtained...
He is also the mediator...
has been enacted." All this was already in place
in the writers day, he is not looking forward to this being completed millennia from when he wrote.
For if that first covenant had been faultless, there would have been no occasion sought for a second. For finding fault with them, He says,
Now the distinction really becomes plain. Jesus' covenant (here, the "second" covenant) has supplanted the "first" covenant, which in this context is clearly the Mosaic Covenant. Jesus is better than Moses, and the covenant through Jesus is better than the covenant through Moses. The first covenant, with Moses, was not faultless (implying that the second covenant with Jesus
is faultless!). It had problems. It couldn't secure what it pointed towards, i.e. complete forgiveness of sins.
"BEHOLD, DAYS ARE COMING, SAYS THE LORD,
WHEN I WILL EFFECT A NEW COVENANT
WITH THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL AND WITH THE HOUSE OF JUDAH;
NOT LIKE THE COVENANT WHICH I MADE WITH THEIR FATHERS
ON THE DAY WHEN I TOOK THEM BY THE HAND
TO LEAD THEM OUT OF THE LAND OF EGYPT;
FOR THEY DID NOT CONTINUE IN MY COVENANT,
AND I DID NOT CARE FOR THEM, SAYS THE LORD.
"FOR THIS IS THE COVENANT THAT I WILL MAKE WITH THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL
AFTER THOSE DAYS, SAYS THE LORD:
I WILL PUT MY LAWS INTO THEIR MINDS,
AND I WILL WRITE THEM ON THEIR HEARTS.
AND I WILL BE THEIR GOD,
AND THEY SHALL BE MY PEOPLE.
"AND THEY SHALL NOT TEACH EVERYONE HIS FELLOW CITIZEN,
AND EVERYONE HIS BROTHER, SAYING, 'KNOW THE LORD,'
FOR ALL WILL KNOW ME, FROM THE LEAST TO THE GREATEST OF THEM.
"FOR I WILL BE MERCIFUL TO THEIR INIQUITIES,
AND I WILL REMEMBER THEIR SINS NO MORE." - Heb 8:7-12 NASB
The writer quotes Jeremiah 31:31-34 in its entirety, obviously intending for the reader to draw the conclusion that the second covenant made by Jesus is in fact the prophesied New Covenant. I know some get hung up on the terms "Israel" and "Judah," but the fact is the inspired writer of scripture here intended for us to see that this second covenant made through Jesus, is the promised New Covenant. If your interpretation of the Old Testament differs from that of inspired writers, then perhaps you should reexamine how you interpret the Old Testament. We must agree with the New Testament writers, and interpret the Old how they did. The writer of Hebrews couldn't be clearer in his interpretation of Jeremiah 31.
When He said, "A new covenant," He has made the first obsolete. But whatever is becoming obsolete and growing old is ready to disappear. - Heb 8:13 NASB
The New Covenant has been made according to the writer, and because of this the first, the Mosaic Covenant, has become obsolete, is growing old, and ready to disappear. And not ready to disappear 2,000 or 3,000 years later. Ready to disappear then, when the text was written. The Old has been done away with and the New Covenant has come in.
I personally think that this implies the whole Old Covenant system was ready to be done away with, which was completed in 70AD with the destruction of Jerusalem and the Temple. YMMV
Also, Hebrews 9 puts the final nail in the coffin:
For if the blood of goats and bulls and the ashes of a heifer sprinkling those who have been defiled sanctify for the cleansing of the flesh, how much more will the blood of Christ, who through the eternal Spirit offered Himself without blemish to God, cleanse your conscience from dead works to serve the living God?
For this reason He is the mediator of a new covenant, so that, since a death has taken place for the redemption of the transgressions that were committed under the first covenant, those who have been called may receive the promise of the eternal inheritance. - Heb 9:13-15 NASB
Christ has offered himself to God as a sacrifice for sin. "For this reason he is the mediator of a new covenant," bringing in the redemption pictured in the Old Covenant.
:jesus: