Brother franklinmonroe gave a good response to this question about 6 mos. ago when he posted this in another thread to another subject, which I shall quote, with emphasis.Personally, I'd say that franklinmonroe has pretty well done 'hit the nail with his head'. And dead-center, at that!
BTW, I'll ask the question of what difference does it make, in the number of letters in the English spelling, bein' as the Greek word from which this is rendered, [σωτηρ (sOter)] is five letters and the Hebrew word from which it is rendered, [transliterated as yasha, sorry, I cannot get the Hebrew to print on my computer, but the letters are 'yod', 'shin', and 'ayin' from what I'm able to ascertain] is three letters?
One has to stretch all linguistic credibility far beyond the breaking point, in order to 'impose' some 'Biblical numerology' theory, which is nowhere given in Scripture, in the first place, as to the claimed implications, into some preferred spelling of centuries old 'Anglicized' English vs. modern 'Americanized' English.
(Never even mind, that the only reason any 'KJV' got into 'the public domain' in the United States, in the first place, was by someone stealing the rights to it, hence ripping off the Church of England and the British Crown. BTW, the Tyndale Bible, Matthews Bible, and the Geneva Bible, among other English versions, had no such rights, FTR, so anyone could print and publish any of them, entirely legally.) But back to the subject:
Fine to personally prefer one or the other. Not very good to hold up the weight of Bible Doctrine on, though.
Also consistent with the question I just askes above, is why was it permissible to 'update' the spelling of, say, "cattell" to "cattle", as was seemingly done by Benjamin Blayney in 1769, but not for another to 'update' the spelling of "Saviour" to "Savior", today? (If you really want to see how the KJV spelled words, check some of the posts of Ed Edwards, who often quotes from a reproduction of the 1611 Edition.) I fail to see the difference, and "I ain't no 'Englishman'", so I do not really care which spelling is currently preferred "across the big pond".
Ed